MAP Chapter 17 Blood

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1

differentiate into macrophages

A. lymphocytes
B. neutrophils
C. monocyte
D. basophils
E. platelets

C. monocyte

2

form a temporary plug at the site of bleeding

A. lymphocytes
B. neutrophils
C. monocyte
D. basophils
E. platelets

E. platelets

3

increase in number significantly during bacterial infections

A. lymphocytes
B. neutrophils
C. monocyte
D. basophils
E. platelets

B. neutrophils

4

play a critical role in immunity

A. lymphocytes
B. neutrophils
C. monocyte
D. basophils
E. platelets

A. lymphocytes

5

contain the anticoagulant heparin granules

A. lymphocytes
B. neutrophils
C. monocyte
D. basophils
E. platelets

D. basophils

6

have both anti-A and anti-B antibodies

A. blood group A
B. blood group B
C. blood group AB
D. blood group O

D. blood group O

7

have both antigens A and B

A. blood group A
B. blood group B
C. blood group AB
D. blood group O

C. blood group AB

8

have only anti-A antibody

A. blood group A
B. blood group B
C. blood group AB
D. blood group O

B. blood group B

9

have the antigen A

A. blood group A
B. blood group B
C. blood group AB
D. blood group O

A. blood group A

10

distribution

A. maintaining appropriate body temperature
B. preventing infection
C. delivering oxygen from the lungs

C. delivering oxygen from the lungs

11

regulation

A. maintaining appropriate body temperature
B. preventing infection
C. delivering oxygen from the lungs

A. maintaining appropriate body temperature

12

protection

A. maintaining appropriate body temperature
B. preventing infection
C. delivering oxygen from the lungs

B. preventing infection

13

water

A. produced by liver; exerts osmotic pressure to maintain water balance between blood and tissues
B. by-products of cellular metabolism (urea, uric acid)
C. involved in transport of lipids; involved in immune response
D. sodium, calcium, potassium, chloride, phosphate, sulfate
E. ninety percent of plasma volume; dissolving and suspending medium for solutes of blood

E. ninety percent of plasma volume; dissolving and suspending medium for solutes of blood

14

albumin

A. produced by liver; exerts osmotic pressure to maintain water balance between blood and tissues
B. by-products of cellular metabolism (urea, uric acid)
C. involved in transport of lipids; involved in immune response
D. sodium, calcium, potassium, chloride, phosphate, sulfate
E. ninety percent of plasma volume; dissolving and suspending medium for solutes of blood

A. produced by liver; exerts osmotic pressure to maintain water balance between blood and tissues

15

globulins

A. produced by liver; exerts osmotic pressure to maintain water balance between blood and tissues
B. by-products of cellular metabolism (urea, uric acid)
C. involved in transport of lipids; involved in immune response
D. sodium, calcium, potassium, chloride, phosphate, sulfate
E. ninety percent of plasma volume; dissolving and suspending medium for solutes of blood

C. involved in transport of lipids; involved in immune response

16

non-protein nitrogenous substances
A. produced by liver; exerts osmotic pressure to maintain water balance between blood and tissues
B. by-products of cellular metabolism (urea, uric acid)
C. involved in transport of lipids; involved in immune response
D. sodium, calcium, potassium, chloride, phosphate, sulfate
E. ninety percent of plasma volume; dissolving and suspending medium for solutes of blood

B. by-products of cellular metabolism (urea, uric acid)

17

electrolytes
A. produced by liver; exerts osmotic pressure to maintain water balance between blood and tissues
B. by-products of cellular metabolism (urea, uric acid)
C. involved in transport of lipids; involved in immune response
D. sodium, calcium, potassium, chloride, phosphate, sulfate
E. ninety percent of plasma volume; dissolving and suspending medium for solutes of blood

D. sodium, calcium, potassium, chloride, phosphate, sulfate

18

porphyria

A. caused by defective synthesis of heme groups and production of nonfunctional hemoglobin molecules
B. caused by abnormal hemoglobin from a change in DNA, resulting in a change in one of the 287 amino acids
C. result from bleeding
D. results from destruction or inhibition of the red marrow by certain bacterial toxins, drugs, and ionizing radiation
E. can be a secondary result of hemorrhagic anemia, but it also results from inadequate diet or impaired absorption

A. caused by defective synthesis of heme groups and production of nonfunctional hemoglobin molecules

19

hemorrhagic anemias

A. caused by defective synthesis of heme groups and production of nonfunctional hemoglobin molecules
B. caused by abnormal hemoglobin from a change in DNA, resulting in a change in one of the 287 amino acids
C. result from bleeding
D. results from destruction or inhibition of the red marrow by certain bacterial toxins, drugs, and ionizing radiation
E. can be a secondary result of hemorrhagic anemia, but it also results from inadequate diet or impaired absorption

C. result from bleeding

20

aplastic anemia

A. caused by defective synthesis of heme groups and production of nonfunctional hemoglobin molecules
B. caused by abnormal hemoglobin from a change in DNA, resulting in a change in one of the 287 amino acids
C. result from bleeding
D. results from destruction or inhibition of the red marrow by certain bacterial toxins, drugs, and ionizing radiation
E. can be a secondary result of hemorrhagic anemia, but it also results from inadequate diet or impaired absorption

D. results from destruction or inhibition of the red marrow by certain bacterial toxins, drugs, and ionizing radiation

21

iron-deficiency anemia

A. caused by defective synthesis of heme groups and production of nonfunctional hemoglobin molecules
B. caused by abnormal hemoglobin from a change in DNA, resulting in a change in one of the 287 amino acids
C. result from bleeding
D. results from destruction or inhibition of the red marrow by certain bacterial toxins, drugs, and ionizing radiation
E. can be a secondary result of hemorrhagic anemia, but it also results from inadequate diet or impaired absorption

E. can be a secondary result of hemorrhagic anemia, but it also results from inadequate diet or impaired absorption

22

sickle-cell anemia

A. caused by defective synthesis of heme groups and production of nonfunctional hemoglobin molecules
B. caused by abnormal hemoglobin from a change in DNA, resulting in a change in one of the 287 amino acids
C. result from bleeding
D. results from destruction or inhibition of the red marrow by certain bacterial toxins, drugs, and ionizing radiation
E. can be a secondary result of hemorrhagic anemia, but it also results from inadequate diet or impaired absorption

B. caused by abnormal hemoglobin from a change in DNA, resulting in a change in one of the 287 amino acids

23

Neutrophils

A. Their cytoplasm lacks visible cytoplasmic granules.
B. The most numerous of the circulating white blood cells; they stain pale lilac since the very fine granules take up both acid and basic stains.
C. Their cytoplasm contains large, coarse granules that stain purplish-black from basic dyes.
D. Their deep red nucleus has two lobes connected by a broad band of nuclear material; their large, coarse granules stain red with acid dyes.
E. Not complete cells, but fragments of cells; they are very small compared to other cellular components.

B. The most numerous of the circulating white blood cells; they stain pale lilac since the very fine granules take up both acid and basic stains.

24

Eosinophils

A. Their cytoplasm lacks visible cytoplasmic granules.
B. The most numerous of the circulating white blood cells; they stain pale lilac since the very fine granules take up both acid and basic stains.
C. Their cytoplasm contains large, coarse granules that stain purplish-black from basic dyes.
D. Their deep red nucleus has two lobes connected by a broad band of nuclear material; their large, coarse granules stain red with acid dyes.
E. Not complete cells, but fragments of cells; they are very small compared to other cellular components.

D. Their deep red nucleus has two lobes connected by a broad band of nuclear material; their large, coarse granules stain red with acid dyes.

25

basophils

A. Their cytoplasm lacks visible cytoplasmic granules.
B. The most numerous of the circulating white blood cells; they stain pale lilac since the very fine granules take up both acid and basic stains.
C. Their cytoplasm contains large, coarse granules that stain purplish-black from basic dyes.
D. Their deep red nucleus has two lobes connected by a broad band of nuclear material; their large, coarse granules stain red with acid dyes.
E. Not complete cells, but fragments of cells; they are very small compared to other cellular components.

C. Their cytoplasm contains large, coarse granules that stain purplish-black from basic dyes.

26

Agranulocytes

A. Their cytoplasm lacks visible cytoplasmic granules.
B. The most numerous of the circulating white blood cells; they stain pale lilac since the very fine granules take up both acid and basic stains.
C. Their cytoplasm contains large, coarse granules that stain purplish-black from basic dyes.
D. Their deep red nucleus has two lobes connected by a broad band of nuclear material; their large, coarse granules stain red with acid dyes.
E. Not complete cells, but fragments of cells; they are very small compared to other cellular components.

A. Their cytoplasm lacks visible cytoplasmic granules.

27

platelets

A. Their cytoplasm lacks visible cytoplasmic granules.
B. The most numerous of the circulating white blood cells; they stain pale lilac since the very fine granules take up both acid and basic stains.
C. Their cytoplasm contains large, coarse granules that stain purplish-black from basic dyes.
D. Their deep red nucleus has two lobes connected by a broad band of nuclear material; their large, coarse granules stain red with acid dyes.
E. Not complete cells, but fragments of cells; they are very small compared to other cellular components.

E. Not complete cells, but fragments of cells; they are very small compared to other cellular components.

28

Von Willebrand factor (VWF)

A. plasma minus the clotting proteins
B. catalyzes conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin strands
C. inactive form of thrombin
D. triggers the "shortcut" extrinsic mechanism that bypasses several steps of the intrinsic pathway
E. assist platelets to adhere to the collagen fibers

E. assist platelets to adhere to the collagen fibers

29

tissue factor (TFIII), or tissue thromboplastin

A. plasma minus the clotting proteins
B. catalyzes conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin strands
C. inactive form of thrombin
D. triggers the "shortcut" extrinsic mechanism that bypasses several steps of the intrinsic pathway
E. assist platelets to adhere to the collagen fibers

D. triggers the "shortcut" extrinsic mechanism that bypasses several steps of the intrinsic pathway

30

prothrombin

A. plasma minus the clotting proteins
B. catalyzes conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin strands
C. inactive form of thrombin
D. triggers the "shortcut" extrinsic mechanism that bypasses several steps of the intrinsic pathway
E. assist platelets to adhere to the collagen fibers

C. inactive form of thrombin

31

thrombin

A. plasma minus the clotting proteins
B. catalyzes conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin strands
C. inactive form of thrombin
D. triggers the "shortcut" extrinsic mechanism that bypasses several steps of the intrinsic pathway
E. assist platelets to adhere to the collagen fibers

B. catalyzes conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin strands

32

serum

A. plasma minus the clotting proteins
B. catalyzes conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin strands
C. inactive form of thrombin
D. triggers the "shortcut" extrinsic mechanism that bypasses several steps of the intrinsic pathway
E. assist platelets to adhere to the collagen fibers

A. plasma minus the clotting proteins

33

buffy coat

A. erythrocyte portion of centrifuged blood
B. thin, white-colored area in centrifuged blood that contains WBC and
C. the liquid portion of centrifuged blood that sits atop everything else

B. thin, white-colored area in centrifuged blood that contains WBC and

34

hematocrit

A. erythrocyte portion of centrifuged blood
B. thin, white-colored area in centrifuged blood that contains WBC and
C. the liquid portion of centrifuged blood that sits atop everything else

A. erythrocyte portion of centrifuged blood

35

Plasma

A. erythrocyte portion of centrifuged blood
B. thin, white-colored area in centrifuged blood that contains WBC and
C. the liquid portion of centrifuged blood that sits atop everything else

C. the liquid portion of centrifuged blood that sits atop everything else

36

True or False

Each hemoglobin molecule has four polypeptide chains

two alpha chains and two beta chains.:
True
A hemoglobin molecule is composed of the protein globin bound to the iron-containing heme pigments. Each globin molecule has four polypeptide chains.

37

True or False
Eosinophils are erythrocytes that fight parasitic infection or allergic reaction.

False
Eosinophils are leukocytes that defend the body against parasitic infections and lessen the severity of allergic reactions.

38

True or False
Hemoglobin serves to transport oxygen, but NOT carbon dioxide.

False
About 20% of carbon dioxide is transported bound to hemoglobin.

39

True or False
Plasma contains water, proteins, nutrient molecules, and hormones.

True
Plasma contains water, proteins, nutrient molecules, and hormones.

40

True or False

Reticulocytes are sometimes found in circulating blood and are filled with hemoglobin and some ribosomes.

True
Reticulocytes are precursors of RBC that are sometimes found in circulating blood.

41

True or False

The buffy coat in centrifuged blood contains RBC and platelets.

False
The buffy coat contains leukocytes and platelets.

42

True or False

The RBC count in both men and women is between 5.1 and 5.8 million per microliter of blood.

False
Women have a slightly lower RBC count than men - 4.2-5.4 million cells per microliter (women); 4.7-6.1 million cells per microliter (men).

43

True or False

Vitamin D is essential for the synthesis of RBC.

False
B-complex vitamins are essential for the production of RBC.

44

True or False

When oxygen is bound to hemoglobin, it becomes oxyhemoglobin.

True
When oxygen is bound to the iron in hemoglobin, it becomes oxyhemoglobin.

45

True or False

One of the regulatory functions of blood is to maintain normal temperatures in body tissues.

True
The blood does this by absorbing and distributing heat throughout the body and to the skin to encourage heat loss.

46

True or False

The most abundant component of plasma is protein.

False
The most abundant component of plasma is water.

47

True or False

Formed elements of blood include erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets.

True
These are called formed elements rather than "cells" because RBCs lack a nucleus at maturity, and platelets are fragments of a larger cell.

48

True or False

Hemoglobin is the protein that makes red blood cells red.

True
Hemoglobin is bright red when combined with oxygen and dark red when NOT combined with oxygen.

49

True or False

Blood cell formation is referred to as hemostasis.

False
Blood cell formation is referred to as hemopoiesis (or hematopoiesis).

50

True or False

Dissolved proteins are an important part of blood clotting.

True
Dissolved proteins are involved in coagulation, which is part of the clotting process.

51

True or False

Blood is NOT important in the regulation of the body's pH.

False
Plasma proteins and bicarbonate ions are very important in maintaining pH.

52

A healthy adult male has approximately __________ liters of blood.

A) 1-2
B) 2-3
C) 3-4
D) 5-6
E) 7-8

D) 5-6

53

A major plasma protein that maintains the blood osmotic pressure is __________.

A) angiotensinogen
B) fibrin
C) globulin
D) fibrinogen
E ) albumin

E ) albumin

54

Diapedesis refers to __________.

A) the secretion of chemicals that trigger the inflammatory process
B) the type of movement erythrocytes use in the tissue spaces
C) the chemical attraction leukocytes use to reach the site of tissue damage
D) the engulfing of foreign bodies by leukocytes
E) the movement of leukocytes from blood vessels into tissue spaces

E) the movement of leukocytes from blood vessels into tissue spaces

55

Granulocytes do NOT include __________.

A) basophils
B) PMNs
C) monocytes
D) neutrophils
E) eosinophils

C) monocytes

56

Mature red blood cells in the circulating blood are filled with __________.

A) nuclei and all other cellular organelles
B) mitochondria
C) lysosomes
D) hemoglobin molecules
E) smooth endoplasmic reticulum

D) hemoglobin molecules

57

Pernicious anemia may result from __________.

A) abnormal production of hemoglobin caused by genetic defect
B) excessive bleeding
C) rupture of red blood cells caused by parasites
D) the lack of vitamin B12 in the diet or a deficiency of the intrinsic factor needed to absorb B12
E) the absence or depressed synthesis of globin chains

D) the lack of vitamin B12 in the diet or a deficiency of the intrinsic factor needed to absorb B12

58

The final step in clot formation is __________.

A) prothrombin → thrombin
B) formation of prothrombin activator
C) fibrinogen → fibrin
D) platelet plug formation
E) the release of chemical by platelets

C) fibrinogen → fibrin

59

The most numerous leukocyte is the __________.

A) neutrophil
B) monocyte
C) lymphocyte
D) basophil
E) eosinophil

A) neutrophil

60

The terms biconcave and anucleated apply to __________.

A) white blood cells
B) platelets
C) leukocytes
D) red blood cells
E) thrombocytes

D) red blood cells

61

Which leukocyte contains histamine in its granules?

A) neutrophils
B) monocytes
C) eosinophils
D) basophils
E) lymphocytes

D) basophils

62

Which of the following is a protective function of blood?

A) preventing infection
B) transporting hormones from endocrine organs to target tissues
C) delivering oxygen from the lungs to all body tissues
D) maintaining normal body temperature
E) maintaining normal pH in the body

A) preventing infection

63

Which of the following statements about platelets is INCORRECT?

A) The formation of platelets is regulated by the hormone thrombopoietin.
B) Platelets are essential for the clotting process.
C) The life span of platelets is between 30 to 60 days.
D) Platelets contain serotonin, ADP, calcium, and PDGF.
E) Platelets are fragments of a larger cell called a megakaryocyte.

C) The life span of platelets is between 30 to 60 days.

64

Which property do white blood cells have in common?

A) All WBCs are granulocytes.
B) WBCs are nucleated and have a protective function.
C) WBCs transport oxygen.
D) All WBCs have a phagocytic function.

B) WBCs are nucleated and have a protective function.

65

Individuals with malaria have a better chance of surviving if they have which type of anemia?

A) iron-deficiency anemia
B) aplastic anemia
C) hemorrhagic anemia
D) sickle-cell anemia
E) renal anemia

D) sickle-cell anemia

66

Which of the following types of white blood cells kills parasitic worms, destroys antibody complexes, and inactivates some inflammatory chemicals of allergy?

A) neutrophils
B) eosinophils
C) lymphocytes
D) basophils
E) monocytes

B) eosinophils

67

Which of the following is a function of neutrophils?

A) mount immune response by direct cell attack or via antibodies
B) kill parasitic worms
C) release histamine and other mediators of inflammation
D) seal small tears in blood vessels
E) phagocytize bacteria

E) phagocytize bacteria

68

Which of the following is a function of erythrocytes?

A) transport oxygen and carbon dioxide
B) phagocytize bacteria
C) mount immune response
E) release histamine
D) kill parasitic worms

A) transport oxygen and carbon dioxide

69

Which of the following is a function of basophils?

A) phagocytize bacteria
B) release histamine during allergic reaction
C) transport blood gases
D) kill parasites
E) mount immune response

B) release histamine during allergic reaction

70

Which of the following is a function of lymphocytes?

A) carry oxygen
B) destruction of virus-containing cells
C) regulate pH
D) produce albumin
E) maintain body temperature

B) destruction of virus-containing cells

71

The percentage of total volume used to determine the number of erythrocytes in a blood sample is referred to as the __________.

A) reticulocyte count
B) hematocrit
C) ESR
D) red blood cell count

B) hematocrit

72

The buffy coat that appears after a sample of blood has been centrifuged contains __________.

A) RBCs
B) serum
C) WBCs
D) plasma

C) WBCs

73

Which of the following factors has the greatest effect on making RBCs very efficient oxygen transporters?

A) They represent most of the formed elements in the blood.
B) They carry 20% of the carbon dioxide released by tissues back to the lungs.
C) They don't contain a nucleus.
D) They generate ATP by anaerobic mechanisms and do not consume any of the oxygen they carry.

D) They generate ATP by anaerobic mechanisms and do not consume any of the oxygen they carry.

74

Another term for reduced hemoglobin is __________.

A) deoxyhemoglobin
B) hemoglobin S
C) oxyhemoglobin
D) carbaminohemoglobin

A) deoxyhemoglobin

75

Which type of anemia results from the destruction or inhibition of the red marrow by drugs, chemicals, ionizing radiation, or viruses?

A) pernicious anemia
B) aplastic anemia
C) iron-deficiency anemia
D) renal anemia

B) aplastic anemia

76

The process of actively metabolizing oxygen by neutrophils to produce bleach and hydrogen to kill bacteria is known as __________.

A) chemotaxis
B) diapedesis
C) the respiratory burst
E) amoeboid movement

C) the respiratory burst

77

Which of the following substances is responsible for limiting a platelet plug to the immediate area of damage?

A) prostacyclin
B) adenosine diphosphate
C) thromboxane A2
D) serotonin

A) prostacyclin

78

Erythroblastosis fetalis is caused by __________.

A) a loss of blood by the fetus
B) an Rh incompatibility between an Rh-negative mother and her Rh-positive baby during pregnancy
C) a malfunction of the thymus during fetal development
D) an increase in the number of erythrocytes in the newborn

B) an Rh incompatibility between an Rh-negative mother and her Rh-positive baby during pregnancy

79

Which of the following plasma expanders would be associated with the LEAST complications?

A) Ringer's solution
B) hetastarch
C) dextran
D) human serum albumin

A) Ringer's solution

80

Eighty-five percent of Americans carry the __________ Rh agglutinogen on their RBCs.

A) D
B) K
C) E
D) C

A) D

81

Which antibodies would be found in the serum of a person with AB blood?

A) anti-A antibodies
B) anti-B antibodies
C) neither anti-A nor anti-B antibodies
D) both anti-B and anti-A antibodies

C) neither anti-A nor anti-B antibodies

82

The percentage of blood volume occupied by erythrocytes is called the __________.

A) hematocrit
B) blood volume
C) hemostat
D) buffy coat

A) hematocrit

83

Which of the following is NOT a role of albumin?

A) It acts as a carrier molecule.
B) It contributes to plasma osmotic pressure.
C) It serves an immune system function.
D) It acts as a blood buffer.

C) It serves an immune system function.

84

Which of the following is a characteristic of a mature erythrocyte?

A) It has a biconcave disc shape.
B) It has mitochondria.
C) It is composed mostly of albumin and water.
D) It has a nucleus.

A) It has a biconcave disc shape.

85

One molecule of hemoglobin can bind a maximum of __________ oxygen molecules.

A) two
B) four
C) six
D) eight

B) four

86

Erythropoiesis is best defined as __________.

A) platelet production.
B) red blood cell production
C) leukocyte production
D) albumin production

B) red blood cell production

87

Erythropoietin is made primarily by the __________.

A) spleen
B) pancreas
C) kidneys
D) pituitary gland

C) kidneys

88

Aging red blood cells are fragmented and trapped in the __________.

A) spleen
B) intestines
C) kidneys
D) liver

A) spleen

89

A patient who lacks intrinsic factor would likely develop __________.

A) sickle-cell anemia
B) hemorrhagic anemia
C) aplastic anemia
D) pernicious anemia

D) pernicious anemia

90

The migration of white blood cells out of the capillary blood vessels is called __________.

A) diapedesis
B) transcytosis
C) leukocytosis
D) active transport

A) diapedesis

91

Neutrophil

A) the most numerous type of white blood cell
B) bilobed nucleus and dark-staining cytoplasmic granules
C) small agranulocyte with a lifespan that varies from a few hours to decades
D) has a role in killing parasitic worms
E) highly phagocytic cell with a U or kidney shaped nucleus

A) the most numerous type of white blood cell

92

Macrophage

A) the most numerous type of white blood cell
B) bilobed nucleus and dark-staining cytoplasmic granules
C) small agranulocyte with a lifespan that varies from a few hours to decades
D) has a role in killing parasitic worms
E) highly phagocytic cell with a U or kidney shaped nucleus

E) highly phagocytic cell with a U or kidney shaped nucleus:

93

Basophil

A) the most numerous type of white blood cell
B) bilobed nucleus and dark-staining cytoplasmic granules
C) small agranulocyte with a lifespan that varies from a few hours to decades
D) has a role in killing parasitic worms
E) highly phagocytic cell with a U or kidney shaped nucleus

B) bilobed nucleus and dark-staining cytoplasmic granules

94

Lymphocyte

A) the most numerous type of white blood cell
B) bilobed nucleus and dark-staining cytoplasmic granules
C) small agranulocyte with a lifespan that varies from a few hours to decades
D) has a role in killing parasitic worms
E) highly phagocytic cell with a U or kidney shaped nucleus

C) small agranulocyte with a lifespan that varies from a few hours to decades

95

Eosinophil

A) the most numerous type of white blood cell
B) bilobed nucleus and dark-staining cytoplasmic granules
C) small agranulocyte with a lifespan that varies from a few hours to decades
D) has a role in killing parasitic worms
E) highly phagocytic cell with a U or kidney shaped nucleus

D) has a role in killing parasitic worms

96

Which of the following is considered a type of lymphocyte?

A) basophil
B) B cell
C) neutrophil
D) macrophage

B) B cell

97

Overproduction of white blood cells is called __________.

A) leukopenia
B) polycythemia
C) leukocytosis
D) leucopoiesis

C) leukocytosis

98

Platelets are derived from __________.

A) band cells
B) megakaryocytes
C) lymphocytes
D) monocytes

B) megakaryocytes

99

Which of the following shows the correct sequence of hemostasis from start to end?

A) vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, coagulation
B) vascular spasm, coagulation, platelet plug formation
C) platelet plug formation, vascular spasm, coagulation
D) coagulation, vascular spasm, platelet plug formation

B) vascular spasm, coagulation, platelet plug formation

100

Which of the following is true regarding the extrinsic pathway of blood clotting?

A) The extrinsic pathway is triggered by tissue factor.
B) The extrinsic pathway does not involve calcium ions.
C) The extrinsic pathway is slower than the intrinsic pathway of blood clotting.
D) The extrinsic pathway is independent of procoagulants.

A) The extrinsic pathway is triggered by tissue factor.

101

heparin

A) converts fibrinogen to fibrin
B) generates thrombin
C) fibrin-digesting enzyme
D) inhibits coagulation
E) stimulates blood vessel healing

D) inhibits coagulation

102

Thrombin

A) converts fibrinogen to fibrin
B) generates thrombin
C) fibrin-digesting enzyme
D) inhibits coagulation
E) stimulates blood vessel healing

A) converts fibrinogen to fibrin

103

prothrombin activator

A) converts fibrinogen to fibrin
B) generates thrombin
C) fibrin-digesting enzyme
D) inhibits coagulation
E) stimulates blood vessel healing

B) generates thrombin

104

plasmin

A) converts fibrinogen to fibrin
B) generates thrombin
C) fibrin-digesting enzyme
D) inhibits coagulation
E) stimulates blood vessel healing

C) fibrin-digesting enzyme

105

platelet-derived growth factor

A) converts fibrinogen to fibrin
B) generates thrombin
C) fibrin-digesting enzyme
D) inhibits coagulation
E) stimulates blood vessel healing

E) stimulates blood vessel healing

106

True or False

A free-floating blood clot is called a thrombus.

False

107

Blood type is determined by __________.

A) antibodies present in the plasma
B) glycoproteins present in the plasma
C) glycoproteins present on the surface of erythrocytes
D) antibodies present on the surface of erythrocytes

C) glycoproteins present on the surface of erythrocytes

108

True or False

Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) can develop when an Rh+ woman is pregnant with an Rh- baby.

False

109

would make antibodies to the A agglutinogen but not the B agglutinogen

A) person with type B blood
B) person with type A blood
C) person with type O blood
D) person with type AB blood

A) person with type B blood

110

would make antibodies to the B agglutinogen but not the A agglutinogen

A) person with type B blood
B) person with type A blood
C) person with type O blood
D) person with type AB blood

B) person with type A blood

111

would have type A and B agglutinogens

A) person with type B blood
B) person with type A blood
C) person with type O blood
D) person with type AB blood

D) person with type AB blood

112

would make antibodies to the A and B agglutinogens

A) person with type B blood
B) person with type A blood
C) person with type O blood
D) person with type AB blood

C) person with type O blood

113

Choose the true statement about fetal hemoglobin.

A) Fetal hemoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen than does adult hemoglobin.
B) Fetal hemoglobin contains four alpha chains.
C) Fetal hemoglobin is produced until the baby is one year old.
D) Fetal hemoglobin is called hemoglobin A.

A) Fetal hemoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen than does adult hemoglobin.


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