Bio 2 Final

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1

Natural selection can be defined as ___.

A) the production of more offspring than can survive in a given environment
B) the evolution of a population of organisms
C) a process in which organisms with certain inherited traits are more likely to survive and reproduce than individuals with other traits
D) a process in which organisms with certain inherited traits are more likely to survive and reproduce than other individuals

D

2

Natural selection ___.

A) prepares organisms for future changes in the enviornment
B) does not affect allelic frequencies
C) results in evolutionary adaptation
D) is a very rare phenomenon

C

3

Which of the following statements about the voyage of the Beagle is true?

A) It turned into a tremendous opportunity for Darwin to collect fossils, plants, and animals
B) its purpose was to identify the fastest route from the Atlantic to the Pacific Ocean
C) it ended with the sinking of the ship off of the coast of Australia, almost four years into its journey
D) it lasted almost 2 years

A

4

During his trip on the Beage, Darwin found that ___.

A) plants and animals living on a continent seemed more closely related to each other than to plants and animals living in similar regions on other continents
B) fossils found on a particular continent were clearly not related to the plants and animals living on that continent today
C) plants and animals living in temperate regions were most similar to each other, regardless of the continent on which they were found
D) plants and animals were similar on every continent in every type of region

A

5

While on the Beagle, Darwin was influenced by a book by Charles Lyell that suggested that Earth was ___ and sculpted by geologic process that ___ today.

A) young... continue
B) old... no longer occur
C) old... continue
D) young... no longer occur

C

6

What did Darwin find in South America that suggested that the Andes mountains had been gradually lifted up over millions of years?

A) dinosaur bones in the Amazon basin
B) impressions of ocean waves at the top of a mountain
C) bird fossils at the top of mountains in Argentina
D) marine snail fossils high up in the Andes mountains

D

7

In the Origin of Species, Darwin argued that the mechanism of descent with modification was ___.

A) artificial selection
B) inheritance of acquired characteristics
C) natrual selection
D) uniformitarianism

C

8

Which of the following is a component of the fossil record?

A) the distribution of murid rodents in Australia and Asia
B) the similarity of the forelimbs of cats and bats
C) bones of extinct whales
D) molecular sequences

C

9

The oldest known fossils are from about ___ years ago.

A) 3.5 billion
B) 1.0 billion
C) 4.0 million
D) 6,000

A

10

Your family is taking a long driving vacation across the midwestern and western US. As you ponder why, you remember that such differences in the distribution of species are part of the field of ___.

A) geology
B) paleontology
C) biogeorgraphy
D) morphology

C

11

Homology is evidence of ___.

A) biogeography
B) natural selection
C) convergent evolution
D) common ancestry

D

12

Which of the following is a population?

A) the termites infesting your house along with the microorganisms living in their guts
B) all of the termites that have every lived
C) the termites infesting your house
D) all organisms living in your house

C

13

Which of the following can create new alleles?

A) mutation
B) genetic drift
C) natural selection
D) sexual reproduction

A

14

The original source of genetic variation that serves as the raw material for natural selection is

A) sexual recombination
B) mutation
C) gene flow
D) random fertilization

B

15

Which of the following is a characteristic of a population at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

A) genetic drift is coming
B) gene flow in and out of the population occurs
C) the population is subject to natural selection
D) the population is not evolving

D

16

Which of the following are homologous?

A) the mouth of a mosquito and the beak of a hummingbird
B) the forelimb of a dog and the hindlimb of a cat
C) the forelimb of a dog and the forelimb of a cat
D) wings of a butterfly and wings of a sparrow

C

17

The similarity of the embryos of fish, frogs, birds, and humans is evidence of ___.

A) common ancestry
B) genetic drift
C) convergent evolution
D) analogy

A

18

Which of the following statement is true?

A) natural selection works on variation already present in a population
B) organisms evolve structures that they need
C) natural selection works on non-heritable traits
D) individuals evolve through natural selection

A

19

Genetic drift is the result of ___

A) environmental variation
B) chance
C) a large gene pool
D) natural selection

B

20

After surviving a bottleneck, a population recovers to the point where it consists of as many individuals as it did prior to the bottleneck. Which of the following statements is most likely to apply to this population?

A) the bottleneck subjected the population to stabilizing selection
B) the postbottleneck population has less of a chance of going extinct that did the prebottleneck population
C) the postbottleneck population exhibits less genetic variation than the prebottleneck population
D) the postbottleneck population exhibits more genetic variation than the prebottleneck

C

21

The founder effect differs from a population bottleneck in that the founder effect ___.

A) can only occur on an oceanic island colony
B) requires a small population
C) involves the isolation of a small colony of individuals from a larger population
D) is a type of natural selection

C

22

Which of the following is the most likely explanation for a particular human population with a higher incidence of polydactyly than the human population as a whole?

A) diversifying selection
B) bottleneck effect
C) founder effect
D) directional selection

C

23

What does evolutionary fitness measure?

A) longevity
B) relative reproductive success
C) physical health
D) population size

B

24

Which of the following is an example of directional selection?

A) garter snakes with different coloration patterns behave differently when threatened
B) the birth weight at which newborn humans are most likely to survive and the average weight of newborn humans are about the same
C) there is an increase in antibiotic-resistant strains of bacteria
D) there is an increase in the number of different breeds of dog

C

25

Which of the following is an example of disruptive selection?

A) there is an increase in the number of different breeds of dog
B) garter snakes with different coloration patterns behave differently when threatened
C) there is an increase in antibiotic-resistant strains of bacteria
D) the birth weight at which newborn humans are most likely to survive and the average weight of newborn humans are about the same

B

26

Which of the following is most likely to decrease genetic variation?

A) diversifying selection
B) mutation
C) stabilizing selection
D) direcitonal selection

C

27

Which of the following is an example of stabilizing selection?

A) the birth weight at which newborn humans are most likely to survive and the average weight of newborn humans are about the same
B) garter snakes with different coloration patterns behave differently when threatened
C) there is an increase in antibiotic-resistant strains of bacteria
D) there is an increase in the number of different breeds of dog

A

28

When brought together in a zoo, two species are capable of mating and producing fertile offspring. Why may they still be considered two distinct species?

A) the two species look very different
B) in the wild, members of one species prey upon member sof the other species
C) wild populations of the two species have different georgraphic distributions
D) zoos are not natural environments

D

29

The biological species concept cannot be applied to ___.

A) animal that use asexual and sexual reproduction
B) fungi that live on land
C) complex plants that have flowers
D) bacteria that only reproduce asexually

D

30

A reproductive barrier that prevents species from mating is an example of ____.

A) reduced hybrid viability
B) prezygomatic barrier
C) zygote mortality
D) postzygomatic barrier

B

31

What type of reproductive isolating mechanism is described by a situation in which female fireflies only mate with males who emit light in a particular pattern?

A) habitat isolation
B) mechanical isolation
C) behavioral isolation
D) temporal isolation

C

32

The type of reproductive barrier that occurs when two species mate but produce sterile hybrids is referred to as ___.

A) temporal isolation
B) postzygomatic barrier
C) behavioral isolation
D) mechanical isolation

B

33

When two frog species mate the offspring die early in embryonic development. This is an example of ___.

A) reduced hybrid variability
B) reduced hybrid fertility
C) mechanical isolation
D) hybrid sterility

A

34

Speciation requires ____.

A)periods of rapid evolutionary change
B)genetic isolation
C)geographic isolation
D)long periods of time

B

35

Which of the following describes allopatric speciation?

A) a tetroploid plant species evolves from a diploid ancestor. Both the tetroid and diploid species are found in the same habitat
B) a population of squirrels by the Grand Canyon. The two subpopulations evolved into two distinct species
C) a male horse and a female donkey mate, producing a sterile hinny
D) one population breads in the fall; another population breads in the spring

B

36

Sympatric speciation specifically excludes ___.

A) temporal isolation
B) post-zygotic barriers
C) behavioral isolation
D) geographic isolation

D

37

Graphically, the graduated model of speciation can be described as appearing as a ___.

A) horizontal line with vertical branches
B) W
C) Y
D) vertical line with horitzontal branches

C

38

A pattern of evolution in which most change in appearance takes place during a relatively short period of time fits the ___ model of speciation.

A) punctuated equilibrium
B) gradual
C) homeostatic
D) punctuated gradual

A

39

Some fish have bony fins. If the body of water they are in dries out, these fins can be used to help the fish "walk" to another body of water.

A) an exptation
B) neoteny
C) paedomorphosis
D)) punctuated evolution

A

40

Feathers in birds appear to have first evolved for insulation but later conveyed a new advantage in helping create light aerodynamic surfaces. This switch in function is an example of ___.

A) paedomorphosis
B) an exaptation
C) punctuated equilibrium
D) convergent evolution

B

41

Which of the following would be an example of paedomorphosis?

A) starfish regenerating several limbs
B) the ability to reproduce evolved in catepillars
C) rapid evolution in a small, isolated population
D) two species evolving a similar appearance

B

42

The current geological era is the ___.

A) paleozoic
B) cambrian
C) mesozoic
D) cenozoic

C

43

Plate tectonics has been responsible for instances of all of the following except

A) allopatric speciation
B) volcanic explosions
C) sympatric speciation
D) mass extinction

C

44

A period of mass extinction is often followed by ___.

A) global cooling
B) equilibrum
C) explosive diversification
D) nonbranching evolution

C

45

The science of naming, identifying and classifying organisms is called ___.

A) zoography
B) phylogeny
C) biogeography
D) axonomy

D

46

Which of the following is a binomial>

A) rhizosolenia
B) diatom
C) sapiens
D) Nitzschia jouseae

D

47

Which of the following taxonomic levels is most inclusive?

A) class
B) family
C) order
D) genus

A

48

Of the following taxonomic levels, species found within the same ___ are the most closely related.

A) phylum
B) order
C) family
D) domaina

C

49

The wing of a bald eagle is ___ the wing of a penguin.

A) unrelated to
B) convergent with
C) analogous to
D) homologous to

D

50

The wing of a penguin is ___ the wing of a butterfly.

A) superior to
B) homologous to
C) structurally identical to
D) analogous to

D

51

An ancestral species and all its evolutionary descendants define a ____.

A) genus
B) ingroup
C) clade
D) outgroup

C

52

Which of the following is the only domain that contains eukaryotes?

A) archaea
B) eukarya
C) animalia
D) plantae

B

53

Eukaryotes arose about ___ years after the first prokarytoes.

A) 3.0 million
B) 1.5 billion
C) 3.5 billion
D) 4.0 billion

B

54

Large amounts of oxygen gas appeared in Earths atmosphere about ___ years ago.

A) 200 million
B) 1.7 billion
C) 2.7 billion
D) 4.5 billion

C

55

The first organisms to colonize land were

A) plants and fungi
B) bacteria
C) protists and fungi
D) animals

A

56

Which of the following is NOT true?

A) the great diversification of animals occurred during the Cambrian explosion
B) the first organisms to colonize land were animals
C) the evolution of multicellularity took place after the origin of the eukaryotes
D) for most of biological history, life was confined to aquatic habitats

B

57

The idea that life regularly arises from nonliving matter is referred to as ___.

A) spontaneous generation
B) endosymbiosis
C) speciation
D) biogenesis

A

58

The absence of ___ in the primitive atmosphere was essential to the origin of life on Eath.

A) CH4
B) O2
C) CO2
D) N2

B

59

What was the first stage of the process that led to the abiotic origin of life?

A) origin of self-replicating molecules
B) abiotic synthesis of polymers
C) abiotic formation of pre-cells
D) abiotic synthesis of monomers, such as amino acids and nucleotides

B

60

Whose experiments demonstrated that, given the conditions of the primitive Earth, biological monomers could arise spontaneously?

A) Miller and Urey
B) Margulis
C) Watson
D) Darwin

A

61

Under what abiotic conditions can monomers spontaneously form polymers?

A) in the presence of oxygen gas
B) when ribozymes are present to catalyzed the reaction
C) when water evaporates from a hot surface
D) by biogenesis

C

62

Why is RNA thought to have been the first genetic material?

A) primitive organisms, such as some viruses, have RNA as their genetic material
B) RNA has been found on meteorites; DNA has not
C) RNA is capable of self-replication; DNA is not
D) RNA is structurally simpler than DNA

C

63

Which prokaryotic group is most closely related to eukaryotes?

A) archaea
B) protista
C) bacteria
D) bacteria and archaea are equally closely related

A

64

The prokaryotic group that tends to inhabit extreme environments belongs to the ___.

A) bacteria
B) monera
C) protista
D) arachea

D

65

Which of the following prokaryotes aid digestion in cattle, deer, and other animals that obtain nutrition from cellulose?

A) methanogens
B) halophiles
C) cocci
D) dinoflagellates

A

66

Spherical bacteria that occur in clusters are ___.

A) bacilli
B) sprilla
C) streptococci
D) staphylococci

D

67

Bacilli are ___ prokaryotes.

A) spherical
B) spiral
C) rod-shaped
D) comma-shaped

C

68

Which of the following would likely be the most difficult to kill were you to cap your own food?

A) microspores
B) megaspores
C) sporophylls
D) endospores

D

69

Prokaryotes reproduce by means of ___.

A) binary fission
B) meiosis
C) mitosis
D) budding

A

70

You discover a prokaryote that can make its own food in the absence of light. You would classify this prokaryote as a ___.

A) photoautotroph
B) photoheterotroph
C) chemoheterotroph
D) chemoautotroph

D

71

All organisms that photosynthesize fit into which nutritional category?

A) photoautotrophs
B) photoheterotrophs
C) chemoautotrophs
D) chemoheterotrophs

A

72

Food poisoning from Salmonella occurs because of

A) extremophile conditions
B) an exotoxin secreted by the bacteria
C) easy transmission between people living in close contact
D) an endotoxin found in the outer membrane of Salmonella bacteria

D

73

___ is an example of bioremediation.

A) Cyanobacteria converting atmospheric nitrogen to a form that plants can use
B) the use of an autoclave to kill endospores
C) a dinoflagellate bloom causing massive fish kills
D) the use of prokaryotes to treat sweage

D

74

Eukaryotes that are not fungi, animals, or plants are classified in a "catch all" category called

A) seaweeds
B) bacteria
C) protists
D) archaea

C

75

According to the theory of endosymbiosis, which organelle evolved from small prokaryotes that established residence within other, larger prokaryotes?

A) Golgi apparatus and endoplasmic reticulum
B) vacuoles and lysosomes
C) centrioles and ribosomes
D) mitochondria and chloroplasts

D

76

Flagellates, amoebas, apicomplexans, and ciliates are all what type of protist?

A) protozoans
B) slime molds
C) seaweeds
D) dinoflagellates

A

77

You discover a unicellular organism that moves by what appear to be pseudopodia. You conclude that this organism is ___.

A) either a type of ciliate, or a type of amoeba, or a type of flagellate, or a type of apicomplexan
B) a type of alga
C) either a type of ameoba or a type of slime mold
D) a type of bacterium

C

78

Which of the following are most closely related to plants?

A) red algae
B) green algae
C) brown algae
D) cellular slime molds

B

79

___ are responsible for toxic red tides.

A) plasmodial slime molds
B) red algae
C) dinoflagellates
D) diatoms

C

80

Which of the following is a colonial form of green algae?

A) plasmodium
B) giardia
C) volvox
D) paramecium

C

81

Inward folds of the plasma membrane of a prokaryotic cell produced the ___ of eukaryotic cells.

A) endomembrane system
B) chloroplasts
C) mitochondria
D) nuclear envelope and DNA

A

82

What is the name given to the process by which a larva develop into an adult?

A) neurulation
B) metamorphosis
C) gastrulation
D) morphogenesis
E) organogenesis

B

83

The common ancestor of all animals is likely to have a ___.

A) sponge
B) virus
C) colonial, ciliated protist
D) colonial, flagellated protist
E) colonial, flagellated bacterium

D

84

Which of these exhibits radial symmetry?

A) butterfly
B) shoe box
C) ferris wheel
D) automobile
E) spoon

C

85

Flatworms are similar to cnidarians in that both ___.

A) have true tissues
B) include many parasitic species
C) exhibit bilateral symmetry
D) lack a gastrovascular cavity
E) have pseudocoeloms

A

86

Humans are chordates. Which animal group is most closely related to chordates?

A cnidarians
B molluscs
C arthropods
D echinoderms
E annelids

D

87

How do sponges differ from all other animals?

A sponges are autotrophs
B sponges lack a true body cavity
C sponges exhibit radial symmetry
D sponges lack true tissues
E sponges have a true coelom

D

88

___ have radial symmetry.

A annelids
B roundworms
C sponges
D cnidarians
E flatworms

D

89

A ___ is an example of a mollusc that does not have a shell.

A snail
B squid
C oyster
D octopus
E clam

D

90

Which animals have a cylindrical body that is tapered at both ends?

A molluscs
B annelids
C cnidarians
D roundworms
E platyhelminthes

D

91

There are more species of ___ than any other type of animal.

A annelids
B nematodes
C molluscs
D chordates
E arthropods

E

92

The arthropod skeleton is composed of ___

A salicylic acid
B glycogen
C peptidoglycogen
D cellulose
E chitin

E

93

Nearly all ___ are aquatic.

A centipedes
B millipedes
C crustaceans
D insets
E arachnids

C

94

___ are the most diverse group of arthropods.

A millipedes
B arachnids
C crustaceans
D insects
E centipedes

D

95

What characteristic is unique to echinoderms?

A a lack of segmentation
B larvae with bilateral symmetry
C suction cup like feet
D a water vascular system
E a true coelom that forms the digestive tube

D

96

Unique features of vertebrates include the presence of a ___.

A endoskeleton
B notochord
C skull and backbone
D pharyngeal slit
E true coelom

C

97

Which of the following is a characteristic of all chordates?

A they all exhibit radial symmetry
B they all have a notochord sometime during the life cycle
C they all have an endoskeleton sometime during the life cycle
D they all have a pseudocoelom
E they all have vertebral columns

B

98

Sharks are a type of ___.

A tunicate
B bony fish
C jawless fish
D cartilaginous fish
E lungfish

D

99

Swim bladders ___.

A help bony fish maintain buoyancy
B contain the gills
C are present in both bony and cartilaginous fishes
D are a component of the lateral line system
E are required for fish to exchange gases with the surrounding waterj

A

100

What does the term tetrapod mean?

A living a double life
B apelike
C having four feet
D egg-laying
E descended from fish

C

101

The feature present in reptiles and absent in amphibians that feed reptiles from dependance on water for reproduction is ___.

A) metamorphosis
B) parental care of eggs
C) the amniotic egg
D) ectothermy
E) the lateral line system

C

102

Characteristics shared by both snakes and birds include ___.

A being endothermic
B being ectothermic
C feathers
D the presence of only a single ovary in females
E the amniotic egg

E

103

Almost every element of bird anatomy is modified for what?

A enhancement of flight
B laying eggs
C single unique songs
D being brightly colored
E eating seeds

A

104

Features unique to mammals include ___.

A being endotherms
B having no egg-laying members
C extended parental care of the young
D the presence of hair
E the absence of flying forms

D

105

___ are the mammalian group that lay eggs.

A tunicates
B primates
C marsupials
D eutherians
E monotremes

E

106

Which anthropoids are most clearly related to humans?

A old world monkeys
B orangutans
C gorillas
D gibbons
E champanzees

E

107

Where did humans first appear?

A asia
B australia
C africa
D europe
E south america

C

108

Ecology is the study of ___.

A relationships among different species
B life
C human effects on the environment
D interactions between humans and other species
E interactions between organisms and their environments

E

109

Which of the following is abiotic?

A an animal
B a protist
C a rock
D a fungus
E a plant

C

110

Which of these represents the correct hierarchial order?

A organism, population, community, ecosystem
B community, population, organism, ecosystem
C organism, community, ecosystem, population
D ecosystem, population, organism, community
E organism, ecosystem, population, community

A

111

What level of ecology is concerned with groups of individuals of the same species?

A community
B ecosystem
C tissue
D population
E organism

D

112

What level of ecology is concerned with groups of individuals of different species?

A organism
B ecosystem
C population
D community
E tissue

D

113

What is a population?

A all of the organisms of a species existing at a particular time
B a group of organisms living in a particular geographic area
C a group of organisms of the same species living in a particular geographic area
D a community as well as all the abiotic factors in a particular geographic area
E a community living in a particular geographic area

C

114

What level of ecology is concerned with both biotic and abiotic aspects of an environment?

A tissue
B community
C organism
D ecosystem
E population

D

115

Aquatic organisms ___.

A that are photosynthetic never find light to be in short supply
B may experience problems with the solute concentration of the surrounding fluid
C in freshwater lakes excrete highly concentrated urine
D have no concerns with regard to water
E have a way coating to prevent water loss

B

116

Which of the following is a behavioral response to environmental variability?

A growing to a larger size
B migrating to a different location
C growing a heavier coat for fur
D evolutionary adaptation
E acclimation

B

117

Water-storing plants and deeply-rooted shrubs are plants that characterize ___.

A deserts
B chaparral
C tropical forests
D temperate grasslands
E savanna

A

118

The sahara desert and the negev desert belong to the same ___.

A biota
B community
C abiota
D biome
E population

D

119

Long snowy winters as well as evergreen trees such as pine and fir are found in ___.

A coniferous forest
B tropical forest
C chaparral
D temperate broadleaf forest
E temperate grasslands

A

120

___ are the dominant herbivores of savanna ecosystems.

A insects
B antelopes
C gnus
D zebras
E buffalo

A

121

What is one important difference between savannas and temperate grasslands?

A savannas have very fertile soil
B savannas are cooler in the winter
C savannas have trees
D savannas only rarely experience fire
E savannas are inhabited by grazing mammals

C

122

Which of these biomes is maintained by fire?

A tundra
B temperate deciduous forest
C desert
D tropical forest
E chaparral

E

123

Permafrost, or permantently frozen subsoil, characterizes ___.

A coniferous forest
B desert
C chaparral
D tundra
E temperate deciduous forest

D

124

Most of the temperate grassland in NA has been converted to ___.

A national parks
B shopping malls
C cities
D farmland
E suburbs

D

125

Water moves from land to atmosphere through ___.

A precipitation only
B evaporation only
C transpiration only
D transpiration and evaporation
E evaporation and precipitation

D

126

The greenhouse effect causes an increase in global temps. This increase is primarily due to ___.

A) CO2 and other GG slowing the escape of UV radiation from earth
B) the loss of ozone that trapped cooling UV radiation in the atmosphere
C) CO2 and other GG slowing the escape of heat from earth
D) CO2 and other GG allowing more solar radiation to penetrate Earths surface
E) none

C

127

Temperatures increase due to global warming are expected to be greatest ___.

A in the tropics
B close to the poles
C in deserts
D in the sea
E none

B

128

The effect of deforestation is to ___.

A) decrease amount of carbon dioxide in atmosphere
B) increase the rate at which carbon dioxide is incorporated into organic material
C) increase the rate of carbon dioxide production through cellular respiration
D) increase the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
E) none

D

129

What is a population?

A) a group of organisms that occupy the same general area and all the abiotic factors that affect them
B) all of the organisms of a single species existing at a particular time
C) a group of organisms that occupy the same general area
D) a group of individuals of the same species that occupy the same general area
E) a group of individuals of the same species that occupy the same general area and all the abiotic factors that affect them

D

130

Which of these best describes type I survivorship?

A) high death rate early in life, low death rate in middle, high death rate late in life
B) very high death rate very early in life followed by a decline in death rate
C) relatively constant death rate throughout life
D) low death rate early in life, high death rate late in life
E) low death rate early in life, high death rate in the middle of life, low death rate late in life

D

131

Type I survivorship curves are typical of species that exhibit ___.

A many offspring and good parental care
B few offspring and poor parental care
C an intermediate # of offspring, intermediate care
D many offspring and poor parental care
E few offspring and good parental care

E

132

Which of these best describes type II survivorship?

A) high death rate early in life, low death rate in middle, high death rate late in life
B) very high death rate very early in life followed by a decline in death rate
C) relatively constant death rate throughout life
D) low death rate early in life, high death rate late in life
E) low death rate early in life, high death rate in the middle of life, low death rate late in life

C

133

Which of these best describes type III survivorship?

A) high death rate early in life, low death rate in middle, high death rate late in life
B) very high death rate very early in life followed by a decline in death rate
C) relatively constant death rate throughout life
D) low death rate early in life, high death rate late in life
E) low death rate early in life, high death rate in the middle of life, low death rate late in life

B

134

Opportunistic species typically ___.

A reach sexual maturity slowly
B are very long-living
C are large-bodied
D exhibit a Type 1 survivorship
E have a large number of offspring

E

135

The number of individuals of a population per unit area is the ___.

A population size
B population age structure
C population density
D population dispersion pattern
E populations intrinsic rate of increase

C

136

In the absence of limiting facts, what shape does a populations growth curve most closely resemble?

A n
B u
C ^
D S
E J

E

137

In a population that is following a logistic growth pattern, what shape does the populations growth curve most closely resemble?

A u
B S
C n
D ^
E J

B

138

___ is the maximum population size that a particular habitat can support.

A population size
B carrying capacity
C intrinsic rate of increase
D survivorship curve
E population growth rate

B

139

Which of these factors operates in a density- dependent manner?

A hurricane
B flood
C volcanic eruption
D food supply
E blizzard

D

140

An unexpected freeze that kills a population of chipmunks is an example of ___.

A a natal effect
B a density-dependent factor
C a density-independent factor
D a population cycle
E an intrinsic factor

C

141

The endangered species act aims to help protect species that ___.

A have suffered significant habitat destruction
B are non-native
C compete with invasive species
D are in danger of extinction
E are economically valuable

D

142

Introduced species can have important effects on biological communities by ___.

A preying upon native species
B competing with native species for resources
C reducing biodiversity
D displacing native species
E doing all of the above

E

143

A study of human ecological footprint shows that ___.

A earth can sustain a population about double the current
B human population size will soon crash
C earth can sustain the current population, but not much more
D earth can sustain an exponetially growing population indefinitely
E we have already overshot the planets capacity to sustain us

E

144

The ecological footprint of the US ___.

A cannot be calculated
B is lower than the global average- a sign of overconsumption
C is about the same as the global average
D shows that americans consume a disproportionate amount of food and fuel
E shows that its population size is increasing slowly

D

145

The single greatest threat to biodiversity comes from ___.

A invasive species
B habitat destruction and fragmentation
C overexploitation
D human predation
E pollution

B

146

An example of a mutualism +/- relation is ___.

A herbivory
B relationship between coral and unicellular algae
C biological magnification of toxins
D cryptic coloration of frogs
E relationship between Virginias warblers and orange warblers

B

147

Populations of two coexisting species are both tertiary consumers in a community. What relationship may exist between these two organisms?

A mutualism
B competition
C parasitism
D predation
E commensalism

B

148

As a result of a disturbance, a community will ___.

A be replaced by a community that is completely different from the previous community
B not recover for thousands of years
C undergo succession
D not be repopulated
E not be recolonized

C

149

Organisms at the first trophic level are ___.

A primary consumers
B producers
C predators
D decomposers
E detritivores

B

150

In the food chain grass- antelope- human- lion- the antelope is

A both a predator and secondary consumer
B both a producer and primary consumer
C secondary consumer only
D both a herbivore and primary consumer
E both a herbivore and secondary consumer

D

151

In the food chain grass- antelope- human- lion- the human is

A producer
B tertiary consumer
C herbivore
D primary consumer
E secondary consumer

E

152

Which of these organisms are ultimately responsible for making energy available to the other organisms listed here?

A secondary consumers
B producers
C herbivores
D carnivores
E primary consumers

B

153

Which of these convert organic matter to inorganic matter by breaking down dead organisms?

A producers
B secondary consumers
C detritivores
D primary consumers
E decomposers

E

154

Which of these could be a decomposer?

A dolphin
B human
C lion
D vulture
E fungus

E

155

Bears eat berries, humans, and large fish; large fish eat smaller fish and insects; humans eat bears, large fish, berries; venus flytraps eat insects. The scenario described is an example of

A population histogram
B food web
C parasitism
D food chain
E ecosystem

B

156

Humans are ___.

A producers
B carnivores
C herbivores
D omnivores
E detritivores

D

157

What is one way in which energy flow differs from chemical cycling?

A) energy cannot be created or destroyed; chemical elements can be created and destroyed
B) energy can enter but cannot leave an ecosystem; chemical elements can leave but not enter ecosystem
C) energy can both enter and leave ecosystem; chemical elements always remain within single ecosystem
D) energy flow is unidirectional; chemical elements can be recycled
E) energy flows from lower to higher trophic levels; chemicals cycle from higher to lower trophic levels

D

158

Approximately what percentage of the visible light that reaches earths producers is converted to chemical energy?

A 0.1
B 0.001
C 1
D 10
E 0.01

C

159

Biomass is the total amount of ___ an ecosystem.

A organic matter tied up in the consumers of
B organic matter tied up in the producers of
C solar energy in
D organic matter in
E chemical elements recycled by the detritivores of

D

160

The rate at which organic matter is produced is produced in an ecosystem is its ____.

A trophic structure
B energy flow
C chemical cycle
D primary productivity
E biomass

D

161

On average, what percentage of the energy in the form of organic matter at one trophic level is not available as biomass at the next highest trophic level?

A 10
B 30
C 50
D 100
E 90

E

162

What form of carbon is incorporated into organic matter by producers?

A C6H12O6
B COOH
C CH4
D CFC
E CO2

E

163

The atmosphere is approximately 80& ___ gas.

A N2
B CFC
C CH4
D H2O
E CO2

A

164

Plants can utilize the ___form of nitrogen.

A N2
B nitrate
C thiol
D atmospheric
E amino

B

165

Which of these organisms convert atmospheric nitrogen gas to a form that can be utilized by plants?

A fungi
B bacteria
C protists
D consumers
E animals

B

166

With regard to nutrient pollution in aquatic ecosystems, when is the worst time to apply fertilizer to your lawn?

A when it is cold, or is about to get cold
B at the same time you apply pesticides
C when it is raining, or is about to rain
D during the day
E at night

C

167

A movement corridor ___.

A is always beneficial to a species
B is a path used by migratory animals when they move to their winter habitats
C is always a natural component of the environment
D is the path most commonly used by an animal within its home range
E unites others isolated patches of quality habitat for species

E

168

Movement corridors are ___.

A only found along stream sides
B not beneficial
C always created by humans
D beneficial because they allow for dispersal, not harmful
E harmful because they allow for the spread of disease

B

169

Based on the relationship between plasmodium spp. and humans, these organisms would be considered ___.

A decomposers
B hosts
C parasites
D carnivores
E producers

C

170

Humans, mosquitoes, and plasmodium together would be considered ___.

A community
B population
C ecosystem
D biopshere
E population and community

A

171

Which of the following were likely important in the development of this resistance to quinine?

A interspecific competition
B mutualism
C natural selection
D predation
E biological magnification

C

172

What most likely happened when the wolves first arrived on the island?

A the wolf population decreased because of virus
B the wolf population was at its carrying capacity
C the wolf population increased exponentially
D the moose population increased exponentially
E the moose population crashed because of predator

C

173

The virus introduced to the island in 1982 that reduced the wolf population

A density-independent factor
B density-dependent factor
C intraspecific competition
D equilibrial life history
E acclimation

B

174

The harsh winter that led to the death of many moose in 1996 is an example of a ____.

A density-independent factor
B trigger for logistic growth
C density-dependent factor
D acclimation
E population that has exceeded its carrying capacity

A

175

Annelids are most closely related to ___.

A arthropods
B echinoderms
C molluscs
D roundworms
E chordates

C

176

Phytoplankton live in the ____.

A benthic zone
B aphotic zone
C photic zone
D photic zone and aphotic zone
E aphotic zone and benthic zone

C


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