Cancel
© 2016 start-seeking.ru
card-image

A&P II Final Part 1

Set Details Share
Helpfulness: +7
created 5 years ago by preciousangelstephanie
118,472 views

updated 5 years ago by preciousangelstephanie

Grade levels:
College: First year, College: Second year, College: Third year, College: Fourth year

show more
1

Which of the following hormones has intracellular receptors?

Cortisol

2

What is the mechanism of action of lipid-soluble hormones?

activation of genes, which increases protein synthesis in the cell

3

After a lipid-soluble hormone is bound to its intracellular receptor, what does the hormone complex do?

acts as a transcription factor and binds to DNA, activating a gene

4

Which hormone’s receptor is always bound to DNA, even when the receptor is empty?

thyroid hormone

5

What keeps intracellular receptors from binding to DNA before a hormone binds to the receptor?

chaperone proteins (chaperonins)

6

What type of hormones bind to receptors located on the cell membrane?

water-soluble hormones, such as insulin and epinephrine

7

Which intracellular substance degrades cAMP, thus inactivating the response to a hormone?

Phosphodiesterase

8

Growth factor hormones, such as insulin, bind to which type of receptor?

tyrosine kinase receptors

9

Which is the correct order of events for hormones activating Gs proteins?

activation of G protein, binding of GTP, activation of adenylate cyclase, conversion of ATP to cAMP

10

Which second messenger causes the release of calcium from the endoplasmic reticulum?

IP3

11

Which of the following adrenergic receptors increase cAMP levels?

beta receptors

12

The stimuli causing endocrine glands to secrete their hormones in direct response to changing blood levels of certain critical ions and nutrients are called __________.

humoral stimuli

13

Which of the following adrenal gland homeostatic imbalances is characterized by persistent elevated blood glucose levels, dramatic losses in muscle and bone protein, and water and salt retention, leading to hypertension and edema?

Cushing's syndrome

14

Which of the following hormones helps the body avoid dehydration and water overload?

antidiuretic hormone

15

Which hormone is the body's major metabolic hormone?

thyroid hormone

16

Which of the following hormones regulates blood calcium ion levels?

parathyroid hormone

17

Which of the following pairs correctly matches the adrenal gland zone or area with the class of hormones it produces?

zona glomerulosa: mineralocorticoids

18

When blood glucose levels are high

The pancreas releases insulin.

19

A liver cell responds to insulin by

Taking in glucose and converting it to glycogen.

20

What cells in the body respond to glucagon by breaking down glycogen and releasing glucose?

Liver cells.

21

Body cells that respond to insulin include

Liver cells, as well as most other cells of the body.

22

When blood glucose levels are low

The pancreas releases glucagon, which eventually causes blood glucose levels to increase.

23

The body's tendency to maintain relatively constant internal conditions is called

homeostasis

24

Which pancreatic hormone functions to lower blood glucose levels?

Insulin

25

Two adrenal glands make hormones that are essential for life. However, in adrenogenital syndrome, females develop a beard and a masculine pattern of body hair distribution; this occurs due to ______.

lack of enzymes the adrenal gland needs to make cortisol and aldosterone

26

One can predict that a person suffering from diabetes mellitus would probably have ______.

increased secretion of ADH (anti-diuretic hormone)

27

What amino acid-based hormone uses the direct gene activation method illustrated in this image?

Thyroxine

28

__________ is the situation when one hormone cannot exert its full effects without another hormone being present.

Permissiveness

29

Which of the choices below is not a factor required for target cell activation by hormone receptor interaction?

type of hormone

30

Which of the following is not a type of hormone interaction?

Feedback

31

Cells that respond to peptide hormones usually do so through a sequence of biochemical reactions involving receptor and kinase activation. In order for cells to respond, it is necessary for first and second messengers to communicate. This is possible because ________.

G protein acts as the link between first and second messengers

32

Thyroid hormone (a small iodinated amine) enters target cells in a manner similar to ________.

steroid hormones, because both diffuse easily into target cells

33

Virtually all of the protein or amino acid-based hormones exert their effects through intracellular ________.

second messengers

34

In circumstances where the body requires prolonged or increased levels of a hormone, the DNA of target cells will specify the synthesis of more receptors on the surface of the cells of the target organ. This is known as ________.

up-regulation

35

Eicosanoids do not include ________.

Hydrocortisones

36

Thyroxine is a peptide hormone, but its mechanism is different from other peptide hormones. Which of the following statements is true concerning this difference?

It does not require a second messenger to effect a response.

37

What ion is sometimes used as a second messenger of amino acid–based hormones?

Calcium

38

What is the primary function of hormones?

alter cell activity

39

Both "turn on" factors (hormonal, humoral, and neural stimuli) and "turn off" factors (feedback inhibition and others) may be modulated by the activity of the nervous system.

TRUE

40

Direct gene activation involves a second-messenger system.

FALSE

41

All peptide hormone synthesis requires gene activation that produces mRNA.

TRUE

42

Why does antidiuretic hormone help regulate an abnormal increase in solute concentration in the extracellular fluid?

It causes reabsorption of water by the kidney, resulting in increased blood water volume and a decreased solute concentration.

43

Which of the following is NOT an endocrine gland?

Adenoid

44

Hyperprolactinemia may be caused by ______.

hyposecretion of dopamine

45

Which of the following is NOT a property of endocrine glands?

They have ducts.

46

Which of the following hormones stimulates the adrenal cortex to release glucocorticoids that help the body to resist stressors?

adrenocorticotropic hormone

47

Major hormones circulate to virtually all tissues.

TRUE

48

Aldosteronism will cause ______.

decreased secretion of renin

49

Up-regulation involves the loss of receptors and prevents the target cells from overreacting to persistently high hormone levels.

FALSE

50

Which of the following occurs in situations where more than one hormone produces the same effects at the target cell and their combined effects are amplified?

Synergism

51

You would predict that iodized salt would have no effect on any cases of ____________.

Graves' disease

52

Which of the following is NOT a homeostatic imbalance related to underactivity of the thyroid gland?

Graves' disease

53

The hypothalamus is known to control the activity of the anterior pituitary, which has traditionally been called the "master endocrine gland."

TRUE

54

Hormones that regulate the secretory action of other endocrine glands are called __________.

Tropins

55

Which of the following mechanisms of hormone action is used by neurotransmitters and olfactory receptors?

cAMP

56

Acromegaly may be caused by all EXCEPT which of the following?

positive feedback by GH (growth hormone) on the anterior pituitary

57

Which of the following hormones suppresses appetite and increases energy expenditure?

leptin

58

What gland secretes growth hormone?

anterior pituitary (lobe)

59

Which hypothalamic hormone stimulates the release of growth hormone from the anterior pituitary (lobe)?

growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH)

60

What hormone, notated by letter B, is released by the anterior pituitary to target the adrenal cortex when we are under stress?

adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

61

What hormone released into the blood (shown by letter D) by the posterior pituitary inhibits or prevents urine formation?

antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

62

Which hormone is involved in diabetes mellitus (DM)?

insulin

63

Which of the following would result from hypoparathyroidism?

neurons become more excitable and tingling sensations

64

Which pancreatic hormone functions to lower blood glucose levels?

Insulin

65

One of the least complicated of the endocrine control systems directly responds to changing blood levels of ions and nutrients. Which of the following describes this mechanism?

humoral stimulation

66

Which of the following is not a change that may be caused by hormonal stimulus?

direct control of the nervous system

67

Which of the following is not a category of endocrine gland stimulus?

Enzyme

68

Cellular responses to hormones that initiate second-messenger systems include ________.

possible activation of several different second-messenger systems

69

Which of the following is not a change typically produced by a hormonal stimulus?

stimulates production of an action potential

70

The ability of a specific tissue or organ to respond to the presence of a hormone is dependent on ________.

the presence of the appropriate receptors on the cells of the target tissue or organ

71

Steroid hormones exert their action by ________.

entering the nucleus of a cell and initiating or altering the expression of a gene

72

Which of the following is not a steroid-based hormone?

Epinephrine

73

Which of the following best describes gluconeogenesis?

synthesis of glucose from noncarbonhydrate sources

74

Calcitonin is secreted by which cells?

C cells (parafollicular cells) in the thyroid gland

75

The zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex produces what steroid hormone?

Aldosterone

76

The sympathetic nervous system directly stimulates which of the following amine hormones?

epinephrine from the adrenal medulla

77

What hormone causes the loss of sodium and water, thus lowering blood pressure.

atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)

78

What amine hormone helps coordinate body activities with the light-dark cycle?

Melatonin

79

What hormone promotes glycogen synthesis in liver and muscle?

Insulin

80

Where is thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) synthesized?

anterior pituitary

81

What is the primary function of hormones?

alter cell activity

82

What tropic hormone stimulates cortisol from the adrenal gland?

adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

83

What is the function of the ventral hypothalamic neurons?

control secretion of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)

84

Insulin-like growth factors (IGFs) are intermediary hormones stimulated by which of the following hormones?

GH (growth hormone)

85

Which of the following hormones is regulated by a neuroendocrine (“letdown”) reflex?

Oxytocin

86

Where is antidiuretic hormone (ADH), also known as vasopressin, synthesized?

Hypothalamus

87

What is the most important regulatory factor controlling the circulating levels of thyroid hormone?

negative feedback

88

Which of the following hormones mainly serves to stimulate milk production by the breasts?

Prolactin

89

Which of the following is a hormone produced by the posterior pituitary?

none of these

90

Which of the following hormones is a part of the rapid response (rather than the prolonged response) to stress?

Epinephrine

91

In response to stress, which of the following changes would happen?

decreased insulin secretion

92

Which of the following are symptom(s) of pheochromocytoma?

heart palpitations

93

Choose which condition has all of the following symptoms: hypertension, hyperglycemia, and a “moon face.”

Cushing’s disease

94

What hormone also aids the stress response by promoting water retention and acting as a vasoconstrictor?

ADH (vasopressin)

95

Which of the following structures does/does NOT produce a hormone or hormones?

Lungs

96

The anatomical effects of acromegaly can usually be reversed by surgically removing the tumor from the anterior pituitary.

FALSE

97

What cells release parathyroid hormone?

parathyroid cells

98

Which hormone can indirectly control insulin release?

increase in blood glucose levels

99

Which of the following is NOT a major type of stimulus that triggers endocrine glands to manufacture and release hormones?

Enzymatic

100

A blow to the head may cause diabetes insipidus by ______.

causing hypersecretion of ADH

101

What is required for the production of anterior pituitary gland hormones?

hormonal stimuli

102

Which of the following best describes the main effects of insulin?

lower blood glucose levels

103

Which hormone(s) is/are essential to our ability to deal with stress?

Glucocorticoids

104

Hyposecretion of growth hormone

pituitary dwarfism

105

An autoimmune problem involving the thyroid gland

Grave's disease

106

Hyposecretion of the pancreas

diabetes mellitus

107

Hypersecretion of growth hormone

acromegaly

108

Hyposecretion of the adrenal cortex

Addison's Disease

109

ACTH ________.

secretion is regulated by a hypothalamic regulatory hormone

110

Which of the following is not a parathyroid gland mechanism to maintain adequate levels of blood calcium?

inhibition of calcitonin synthesis

111

Atrial natriuretic peptide is a hormone that controls blood pressure in part by increasing the urinary excretion of sodium.

TRUE

112

The second-messenger mechanism of hormone action operates by ________.

binding to specific receptors and employing the services of G proteins and cAMP

113

Oxytocin is a strong stimulant of uterine contractions.

TRUE

114

ACTH stimulates the adrenal cortex to release corticosteroid hormones.

TRUE

115

Chemical substances secreted by cells into the extracellular fluids and that regulate the metabolic function of other cells in the body are called ________.

Hormones

116

ADH ________.

is inhibited by alcohol

117

Oxytocin and ADH are produced in the posterior pituitary.

FALSE

118

A man has been told that he is not synthesizing enough follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), and for this reason he may be unable to father a child. Choose the correct statement to explain this problem.

FSH stimulates sperm production in the testes.

119

Which of the following is not a cardinal sign of diabetes mellitus?

Polycythemia

120

Hyposecretion of the thyroid in infants

cretinism

121

Hyposecretion of the thyroid in adults

myxedema

122

Produces the body's major metabolic hormones

thyroid

123

The gland that controls the flight-or-fight reaction

Adrenal medulla

124

The size and shape of a pea; produces hormones that stimulate other endocrine glands.

hypophysis

125

Produces hormones that regulate glucose levels in the body

pancreas

126

Produces a hormone that controls blood levels of calcium and potassium by their removal from bone to tissue.

parathyroid

127

The hypothalamic-hypophyseal tract ________.

is partly contained within the infundibulum

128

Which part of the conduction system initiates the depolarizing impulse, which spreads throughout the heart?

SA node

129

What does the ECG wave tracing represent?

electrical activity in the heart

130

What does the QRS complex represent in the ECG wave tracing?

ventricular depolarization

131

Contraction of the atria results from which wave of depolarization on the ECG tracing?

P wave

132

Which part of the intrinsic conduction system delays the impulse briefly before it moves on to the ventricles?

AV node

133

The heart's pacemaker is the __________.

sinoatrial node

134

What structures connect the individual heart muscle cells?

intercalated discs

135

Which of the following is NOT a difference between cardiac and skeletal muscle?

Cardiac muscle does not use the sliding filament mechanism for contraction; skeletal muscle does.

136

Blood in the heart chambers provides some nutrients to the heart muscle cells.

TRUE

137

Blood within the pulmonary veins returns to the ________.

left atrium

138

A patient was admitted to the hospital with chest pains. On admission, his pulse was 110 and blood pressure was 96/64. According to his history, his normal pulse rate is usually between 80 and 88 and his blood pressure runs from 120/70 to 130/80. Why did these changes in BP and HR occur?

To maintain the same cardiac output, the heart rate would need to increase to compensate for a decreased stroke volume.

139

A 55-year-old male was admitted to the hospital with heart failure. He complains of increasing shortness of breath on exertion, and of needing to sleep on three pillows at night. On physical assessment, the nurse determines that his ankles and feet are very swollen. Which of these symptoms either reflect left-sided and/or right-sided heart failure?

Left side failure results in shortness of breath. Right side failure results in edema in the extremities.

140

Autonomic regulation of heart rate is via two reflex centers found in the pons.

FALSE

141

What structures connect the individual heart muscle cells?

intercalated discs

142

The condition where fluid compresses the heart and limits its ability to contract is called ________.

cardiac tamponade

143

Isovolumetric relaxation and ventricular filling (two phases of the cardiac cycle) take place during __________.

ventricular diastole

144

Which of the following is correct about the filling of the ventricles?

Most blood flows passively into the ventricles through open AV valves.

145

Describe the pressures in the atria and ventricles that would cause the opening of the AV valves.

Pressure in the atria would be greater than the pressure in the ventricles.

146

What causes the aortic semilunar valve to close?

greater pressure in the aorta than in the left ventricle

147

Put the phases of the cardiac cycle in the correct order, starting after ventricular filling.

isovolumetric contraction, ventricular ejection, isovolumetric relaxation

148

Increased pressure in the ventricles would close what valve(s)?

AV valves only

149

Isovolumetric contraction ________.

refers to the short period during ventricular systole when the ventricles are completely closed chambers

150

A patient is prescribed a calcium channel blocker to prevent angina (chest pain) by decreasing the demand for oxygen. What is the explanation for this pharmacological effect?

A drug that inhibits the entry of calcium ions into the cytoplasm of cardiac cells decreases the force of myocardial contractility, thereby decreasing the oxygen demand, relieving the chest pain.

151

If the vagal nerves to the heart were cut, the result would be that ________.

the heart rate would increase by about 25 beats per minute

152

The "lub" sounds of the heart are valuable in diagnosis because they provide information about the function of the heart's pulmonary and aortic valves.

FALSE

153

Select the correct statement about the function of myocardial cells.

The entire heart contracts as a unit or it does not contract at all.

154

Normal heart sounds are caused by which of the following events?

closure of the heart valves

155

Which of the following is not part of the conduction system of the heart?

bundle of His

156

The tricuspid valve is closed ________.

when the ventricle is in systole

157

As pressure in the aorta rises due to atherosclerosis, more ventricular pressure is required to open the aortic valve.

TRUE

158

Which of the following is not an age-related change affecting the heart?

thinning of the valve flaps

159

Which of the following is the outermost covering of the heart?

fibrous pericardium

160

The QRS complex on an electrocardiogram represents __________.

ventricular depolarization

161

Which of the following pacemaker cells generates impulses of approximately 75 depolarizations per minute in order to control the heart's contraction rate?

sinoatrial (SA) node

162

What separates the parietal and visceral pericardium?

pericardial cavity

163

Hypercalcemia could cause ______.

prolonged T wave

164

Which of the following would increase cardiac output to the greatest extent?

increased heart rate and increased stroke volume

165

Which of the following would increase heart rate?

epinephrine and norepinephrine

166

How would an increase in the sympathetic nervous system increase stroke volume?

increased contractility

167

By what mechanism would an increase in venous return increase stroke volume?

increased end diastolic volume

168

How would a decrease in blood volume affect both stroke volume and cardiac output?

decreased stroke volume and no change in cardiac output

169

The left side of the heart is considered the systemic circuit pump.

TRUE

170

Specifically, what part of the intrinsic conduction system stimulates the atrioventricular (AV) node to conduct impulses to the atrioventricular bundle?

sinoatrial (SA) node

171

Which of the following terms refers to a lack of oxygen supply to heart muscle cells?

Ischemia

172

What is the source of ATP for cardiac muscle contraction?

cellular respiration

173

What does the T wave of the electrocardiogram (ECG) represent?

ventricular repolarization

174

An abnormal P wave could be indicative of ______.

enlarged atria

175

Isovolumetric relaxation and ventricular filling (two phases of the cardiac cycle) take place during __________.

ventricular diastole

176

Which of the following is correct about the filling of the ventricles?

Most blood flows passively into the ventricles through open AV valves.

177

Describe the pressures in the atria and ventricles that would cause the opening of the AV valves.

Pressure in the atria would be greater than the pressure in the ventricles.

178

What causes the aortic semilunar valve to close?

greater pressure in the aorta than in the left ventricle

179

Put the phases of the cardiac cycle in the correct order, starting after ventricular filling.

isovolumetric contraction, ventricular ejection, isovolumetric relaxation

180

Increased pressure in the ventricles would close what valve(s)?

AV valves only

181

Which chamber of the heart receives oxygenated blood via the pulmonary circuit?

left atrium

182

Which layer of the heart wall contracts and is composed primarily of cardiac muscle tissue?

Myocardium

183

In an ischemic heart, the affected cardiac muscle cells are likely to have an altered ______.

resting membrane potential

184

The heart is actually (one, two, or three) pumps?

two pumps

185

Which chamber receives blood from the superior and inferior vena cavae?

right atrium

186

Which heart chamber receives blood from the pulmonary veins?

left atrium

187

Which heart chamber pumps unoxygenated blood out the pulmonary trunk?

right ventricle

188

Which chamber pumps oxygenated blood out the aorta to the systemic circuit?

left ventricle

189

Which of the following is NOT a vein that returns blood to the right atrium of the heart?

pulmonary vein

190

At what rate does the sinoatrial (SA) node ensure depolarization in the heart?

75 beats of the heart per minute

191

The left ventricular wall of the heart is thicker than the right wall in order to ________.

pump blood with greater pressure

192

Into what vessel does the left ventricle eject blood?

Aorta

193

The presence of an incompetent tricuspid valve would have the direct effect of causing ______.

reduced efficiency in the delivery of blood to the lungs

194

Auricles slightly increase blood volume in the ventricles.

FALSE

195

Cardiac muscle has more mitochondria and depends less on a continual supply of oxygen than does skeletal muscle.

FALSE

196

The structure that prevents backflow of blood into the left atrium is the

mitral (bicuspid) valve

197

The vessel that carries oxygen-rich blood to tissues is the

aorta

198

The capillaries recieving blood from the left side of the heart are

systemic capillaries

199

The structure that is located anatomically between the aorta and the left ventricle is

aortic semilunar valve

200

The source of blood carried to capillaries in the myocardium would be the ________.

coronary arteries

201

Which valve is located between the right atrium and ventricle?

tricuspid valve

202

Which of the following is NOT a difference between the left and right ventricles?

The left ventricle receives a smaller percentage of coronary blood supply than the right ventricle.

203

A man enters the hospital complaining of chest pain. His history includes smoking, a stressful job, a diet heavy in saturated fats, lack of exercise, and high blood pressure. Although he is not suffering from a heart attack, his doctor explains to him that a heart attack is quite possible. What did the chest pain indicate? Why is this man a prime candidate for further complications?

Angina pectoris. If the coronary arteries are occluded (atherosclerosis), the heart muscle could be deprived of oxygen, resulting in a heart attack.

204

Which of the following would cause a decrease in the contractility of the heart?

increasing extracellular potassium levels

205

Calculate the stroke volume if the end diastolic volume (EDV) is 135 mL/beat and the end systolic volume (ESV) is 60 mL/beat.

75 mL/beat

206

The fact that the left ventricle of the heart is thicker than the right ventricle reveals that it ________.

pumps blood against a greater resistance

207

What causes normal heart sounds?

heart valve closure

208

The myocardium receives its blood supply from the coronary arteries.

TRUE

209

The papillary muscles contract after the other ventricular muscles so that they can take up the slack on the chordae tendineae before the full force of ventricular contractions sends blood against the AV valve flaps.

FALSE

210

Which of the following increases stroke volume?

Exercise

211

Select the correct statement about the structure of the heart wall.

The myocardium is the layer of the heart that actually contracts.

212

The term for pain associated with deficient blood delivery to the heart that may be caused by the transient spasm of coronary arteries is ________.

angina pectoris

213

To auscultate the aortic semilunar valve, you would place your stethoscope in the ________.

second intercostal space to the right of the sternum

214

During contraction of heart muscle cells ________.

some calcium enters the cell from the extracellular space and triggers the release of larger amounts of calcium from intracellular stores

215

Prevents backflow into the left atrium

mitral valve

216

AV valve with two flaps

mitral valve

217

Prevents backflow into the right atrium

tricuspid valve

218

Prevents backflow into the right ventricle

pulmonary valve

219

Prevents backflow into the left ventricle

aortic valve

220

AV valve with three flaps

tricuspid valve

221

When viewing a dissected heart, it is easy to visually discern the right and left ventricles by ________.

noticing the thickness of the ventricle walls

222

Asystole is the total absence of ventricular electrical activity. Would defibrillation be effective in this situation?

Defibrillation would not be effective: it interrupts chaotic electrical activity in the heart, and if there is no electrical activity, then there is nothing to interrupt.

223

Serous layer covering the heart muscle

Epicardium

224

Heart muscle

myocardium

225

The inner lining of the heart

endocardium

226

The outermost layer of the serous pericardium

partietal layer

227

The layers of the heart wall from superficial to deep are: __________.

epicardium, myocardium, and endocardium

228

A premature ventricular contraction is classified as a(n) __________.

extrasystole

229

The heart has __________ chambers and __________ valves.

four; four

230

Which portion of the electrocardiogram represents the time during which the atria repolarize?

QRS complex

231

The __________ valve is located between the right atrium and the right ventricle.

Tricuspid

232

Hypercalcemia could cause ______.

prolonged T wave

233

Action potentials generated by the autorhythmic cells spread to the contractile cells through what structures in the membrane?

gap junctions

234

One of the changes that occurs in the pacemaker potential (unstable resting membrane potential) in the SA node (an autorhythmic cell) is a decreased efflux of what ion?

Potassium

235

When threshold is reached at the SA node (an autorhythmic cell), what channels open causing further depolarization of the membrane?

fast calcium

236

Repolarization of an autorhythmic cell is due to the opening of which channels?

voltage-gated potassium channels

237

In order to cause cardiac muscle contraction, the contractile cells must also depolarize. What causes the depolarization of the contractile cells?

the flow of positive ions from adjacent cells

238

Cardiac tamponade results in ineffective pumping of blood by the heart because the excessive amount of fluid in the pericardial cavity will______.

prevent the heart from filling properly with blood

239

Into which chamber do the pulmonary veins send blood?

left atrium

240

Which heart chamber sends deoxygenated blood to the lungs?

right ventricle

241

Which of the following terms refers to a lack of oxygen supply to heart muscle cells?

Ischemia

242

Arterial blood supply to heart muscle is continuous whether the heart is in systole or diastole.

FALSE

243

Proxysmal atrial tachycardia is characterized by bursts of atrial contractions with little pause between them.

TRUE

244

Commotio cordis is heart failure due to a ________.

relatively mild blow to the chest that occurs during a vulnerable interval (2 ms) when the heart is repolarizing

245

An ECG provides direct information about valve function.

FALSE

246

Into which chamber of the heart do the superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, and coronary sinus return deoxygenated blood?

right atrium

247

An older woman complains of shortness of breath and intermittent fainting spells. Her doctor runs various tests and finds that the AV node is not functioning properly. What is the suggested treatment?

Surgery to implant an artificial pacemaker

248

Tissues damaged by myocardial infarction are replaced by connective tissue.

TRUE

249

Compared to skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle ________.

has gap junctions that allow it to act as a functional syncytium

250

What is the main function of heart valves?

to prevent backward flow of blood

251

When the atria contract, which of the following is true?

The ventricles are in diastole.

252

Which of the following is equivalent to the ventricular volume during isovolumetric contraction?

The end diastolic volume (EDV)

253

Which of the following is true during ventricular systole?

The AV valves are closed.

254

During the ventricular ejection phase of the cardiac cycle, which of the following is true?

The semilunar valves are open.

255

Most of the decrease in ventricular volume takes place during which phase of the cardiac cycle?

ventricular ejection

256

Which of the following is equivalent to the ventricular volume during isovolumetric relaxation?

end systolic volume (ESV)

257

Most of the increase in left ventricular volume takes place during what phase of the cardiac cycle?

ventricular filling

258

In what direction does blood flow through the heart?

from a region of high pressure to a region of low pressure

259

Atrial pressure is greater than ventricular pressure during which phase of the cardiac cycle?

atrial contraction

260

At what point during the cardiac cycle does the AV valve close?

when ventricular pressure becomes greater than atrial pressure

261

At what point in the cardiac cycle does the semilunar valve open?

when ventricular pressure becomes greater than aortic pressure

262

Ventricular pressure is greater than aortic pressure during which phase of the cardiac cycle?

ventricular ejection

263

At what point in the cardiac cycle does the semilunar valve close?

when pressure in the ventricle becomes less than aortic pressure

264

Isovolumetric relaxation is characterized by which of the following?

The semilunar and AV valves are closed.

265

At what point in the cardiac cycle does the AV valve open?

when atrial pressure becomes greater than ventricular pressure

266

Which artery serves the myocardium of the lateral right side of the heart?

right marginal artery

267

Where are worn-out erythrocytes found in the spleen?

red pulp

268

Antibodies are produced by __________.

plasma cells

269

Within buboes, bacteria are directly attacked by ______.

Macrophages

270

What do collecting lymphatic vessels NOT share in common with veins of the cardiovascular system?

thickness of the walls

271

Which of the following promotes closure of the minivalves associated with lymph capillaries?

increasing pressure inside the lymph capillary

272

Adjacent cells in lymphatic capillaries overlap each other loosely. These cells form a unique structural modification that increases their permeability that is known as the __________.

Minivalves

273

Where are Peyer's patches located?

distal portion of the small intestine

274

The thymus functions strictly in maturation of T cells.

TRUE

275

Which of the following are primary lymphoid organs?

bone marrow and thymus

276

Which of the following areas in a secondary lymphoid organ allows intimate contact between blood and the lymphocytes?

white pulp of the spleen

277

Where in the lymph node do the T cells first encounter antigens presented by dendritic cells?

deep in the cortex

278

Collections of lymphoid tissues, called MALT, are strategically placed throughout the respiratory, digestive, and genitourinary systems. Which one of these is located at the end of the small intestine?

Peyer’s patches

279

There is a decrease in our ability to fight infection as we age. Which lymphoid organ may have a role in this decline?

Thymus

280

To what organ do the lymphatic vessels return protein-rich escaped fluids to rejoin circulation?

heart

281

Lymph is most similar to __________.

interstitial fluid

282

Once collected, lymph is returned to __________.

venous circulation

283

What is the role of the mini-valves in lymph capillaries?

increase permeability

284

Which of the following lymphoid tissues/organs does NOT contain reticular connective tissue?

Thymus

285

Which of the following is NOT a lymphatic cell?

Eosinophil

286

Which of the following is a role of lymph nodes?

They filter lymph.

287

Which lymphoid organ serves in immune surveillance and in filtering lymph?

lymph nodes

288

Which lymphoid organ serves as the site where T lymphocytes become immunocompetent T cells?

thymus gland

289

Which of the following is NOT a part of MALT (mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue)?

lymph nodes

290

Which lymphoid organ provides a site for lymphocyte proliferation and immune surveillance and response and provides blood-cleansing functions?

Spleen

291

Lymphedema may be treated by all EXCEPT which of the following?

bed rest to allow enhanced blood flow and therefore healing of the affected area

292

Within buboes, bacteria are directly attacked by ______.

Macrophages

293

After surgical removal of the spleen (i.e., a splenectomy), some other organs take over most of its functions. Which of the following spleen functions in the adult can be performed by bone marrow?

removal of aged and damaged red blood cells from the blood

294

The most important role of the spleen is to provide a site for lymphocyte proliferation and immune surveillance and response.

FALSE

295

In the spleen, red pulp is involved in the immune functions and white pulp is involved in disposing of worn-out RBCs.

FALSE

296

If even a small part of the spleen is left in a ten-year-old child, it will most likely regenerate itself.

TRUE

297

Peyer's patches are clusters of lymphoid tissue found primarily in the large intestine.

FASLE

298

The tonsils located at the base of the tongue are the ________.

lingual tonsils

299

Which part of the spleen is the site of immune function?

white pulp

300

Like blood, lymph flows both to and from the heart.

FALSE

301

The simplest lymphoid organs are the lymph nodes.

FALSE

302

The cisterna chyli collects lymph from the lumbar trunks draining the upper limbs and from the intestinal trunk draining the digestive organs.

FALSE

303

When tissues are inflamed, lymphatic capillaries develop openings that permit uptake of large particles such as cell debris, pathogens, and cancer cells.

TRUE

304

Because lymph vessels are very low-pressure conduits, movements of adjacent tissues are important in propelling lymph through the lymphatics.

TRUE

305

Lymph transport involves all but which of the following?

smooth muscle contraction in the lymph capillary walls

306

Which of the following is NOT a part of the lymphatic system?

blood vessels

307

Which of the following lymphoid cells secrete antibodies?

plasma cells

308

The lymphatic capillaries function to absorb the excess protein-containing interstitial fluid and return it to the bloodstream.

TRUE

309

Which of the following delivers lymph into the junction of the internal jugular vein and the subclavian vein?

thoracic duct

310

Of the following lymphoid organs, which is (are) structurally simplest and lack(s) a complete capsule?

Tonsils

311

What is the name of the enlarged sac to which the lumbar trunks and the intestinal trunk returns lymph?

cisterna chili

312

Which of the following is not a normal component of lymph?

red blood cells

313

Which of the following is not a function of the lymphatic system?

transporting respiratory gases

314

Tonsillar crypts are invaginations deep into the interior of the tonsil. What is missing from the tonsil that allows for the presence of tonsillar crypts?

Capsule

315

Lymphocytes reside temporarily in lymphoid tissue, then move to other parts of the body.

TRUE

316

Lymph leaves a lymph node via ________.

efferent lymphatic vessels

317

Which of the following is not a method that maintains lymph flow?

capillary smooth muscle contraction

318

Which of the following statements regarding the thymus is not true?

It has follicles similar to those in the spleen.

319

Select the correct statement about lymph transport.

Lymph transport depends on the movement of adjacent tissues, such as skeletal muscles.

320

All the lymphoid organs are well developed before birth.

FALSE

321

Which of the following is not a function of lymph nodes?

produce lymph fluid and cerebro-spinal fluid

322

Which of the following is not a part of the lymphatic system?

erythrocytes

323

Lymphatic capillaries are permeable to proteins.

TRUE

324

There are more efferent lymphatic vessels leaving a lymph node than there are afferent vessels entering a lymph node.

FALSE

325

A sentinel node is ________.

the first node to receive lymph from an area suspected to be cancerous

326

Lymph capillary permeability is due to minivalves and protein filaments.

TRUE

327

Chyle is delivered to the blood via the lymphatic system.

TRUE

328

Which lymphatic structure drains lymph from the right upper limb and the right side of the head and thorax?

right lymphatic duct

329

Large clusters of lymph nodes occur in all of the following locations except the ________.

lower extremities

330

The lymphatic capillaries are ________.

more permeable than blood capillaries

331

Which of the following is NOT a lymphatic cell?

Eosinophil

332

Which of the following are functions of lymphoid tissue?

A and C

333

About 3 liters of fluid are lost to the tissue spaces every 24 hours and are returned to the bloodstream as lymph.

TRUE

334

Protien-containing fluid within lymphatic vessels

lymph

335

stores blood platelets

spleen

336

Recieves lymph from most of the body

thoracic duct

337

Small organs intimately associated with lymphatic vessels

lymph nodes

338

Largest lymphatic organ

spleen

339

Isolated clusters of lymph follicles found in the wall of the small intestine.

Peyer's patches

340

The thymus is most active during ________.

Childhood

341

What is a bubo?

an infected lymph node

342

Lymphoid tissue is mainly reticular connective tissue.

TRUE

343

Digested fats are absorbed from the intestine by the lymph capillaries.

TRUE

344

Which of the following would not be classified as a lymphatic structure?

Pancreas

345

Lymph capillaries are absent in all except which of the following?

digestive organs

346

Which of the following statements regarding the thymus is not true?

It has follicles similar to those in the spleen.

347

Which of the following does not contain a mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue?

Thymus

348

Select the correct statement about lymphocytes.

B cells produce plasma cells, which secrete antibodies into the blood.

349

What do collecting lymphatic vessels NOT share in common with veins of the cardiovascular system?

thickness of the walls

350

Adjacent cells in lymphatic capillaries overlap each other loosely. These cells form a unique structural modification that increases their permeability that is known as the __________.

Minivalves

351

Within buboes, bacteria are directly attacked by ______.

Macrophages

352

The __________ is (are) the most likely to become infected.

palatine tonsils

353

Lymphangitis is caused by ______.

an infection

354

Which of the following lacks lymph capillaries?

bones and teeth

355

Lymph from the right leg ultimately is delivered to which duct in the thoracic region?

thoracic duct

356

Lymphatic vessels __________.

return tissue fluid to the bloodstream

357

What is the main function of the lymphatic system?

The lymphatic system returns leaked fluid and plasma proteins that escape from the bloodstream to the blood.

358

The thymus functions strictly in maturation of T cells.

TRUE

359

Which of the following is NOT a lymphoid tissue/organ?

bone marrow

360

What is the role of the B lymphocytes (B cells) in lymphoid tissue?

produce plasma cells that secrete antibodies

361

Peyer's patches are found in the ________.

ileum of the small intestine

362

Which of the following returns lymph to the right lymphatic duct?

right side of the head

363

Lymphatic collecting vessels are most closely associated with __________.

capillary beds

364

When the lymphatic structures of a limb are blocked due to tumors, the result is ________.

severe localized edema distal to the blockage of that limb

365

Lymph from what regions of the body is drained into the right lymphatic duct?

right upper limb, right side of the head and thorax

366

Antibodies that act against a particular foreign substance are released by ________.

plasma cells

367

Peyer's patches are located __________.

in the wall of the small intestine

368

What is the role of dendritic cells in lymphoid tissue?

capture antigens and bring them back to lymph nodes

369

Patients with rhinitis often have "watery eyes" because ______.

the infection has caused inflammation of the nasolacrimal ducts

370

The structures within the respiratory system's conducting zone include the trachea and the paranasal sinuses.

TRUE

371

Which of the following is the primary factor in oxygen attachment to, or release from, hemoglobin?

partial pressure of oxygen

372

Which of the following structures would be the LEAST vulnerable to damage caused by oxygen toxicity?

costal cartilages

373

What is ventilation-perfusion coupling?

matching the amount of gas reaching the alveoli to the blood flow in pulmonary capillaries

374

Emphysema can result in an ______.

All of the listed responses are correct.

375

What is the most common method of carbon dioxide transport?

as bicarbonate ions in the plasma

376

Systemic venous blood that is to be oxygenated in the lungs is delivered by the __________, and the __________ provide oxygenated systemic blood to lung tissue.

pulmonary arteries; bronchial arteries

377

Smoking inhibits cilia by inhibiting the movements of ______.

dynein molecules

378

During inhalation,

the diaphragm and rib muscles contract.

379

From which structures do oxygen molecules move from the lungs to the blood?

Alveoli

380

Which statement is correct?

In the blood, oxygen is bound to hemoglobin, a protein found in red blood cells.

381

After blood becomes oxygenated,

it returns to the heart, and is then pumped to body cells.

382

Hemoglobin

is a protein that can bind four molecules of oxygen.

383

Emphysema is distinguished by permanent shrinkage of the alveoli.

FALSE

384

Oxygen is unloaded where it is most needed when blood pH drops, this is a phenomenon known as ___________.

the Bohr effect

385

During pneumonia, the lungs become "waterlogged"; this means that within the alveoli there is an abnormal accumulation of ______.

interstitial fluid

386

The tissue(s) and/or cells that may be affected during laryngitis ______.

All of the listed responses are correct.

387

The smallest subdivisions of the lung visible with the naked eye are the __________, which appear to be connected by black carbon in smokers.

Lobules

388

What is the amount of air that can be exhaled with the greatest possible exhalation after the deepest inhalation called?

vital capacity

389

During pleurisy, the inflamed parietal pleura of one lung rubs against the inflamed ______.

visceral pleura of the same lung

390

What is the most powerful respiratory stimulant in a healthy person?

arterial blood carbon dioxide level

391

Tracheal obstruction by a large piece of food typically involves obstruction of the ______.

Larynx

392

Which of the following qualifies as a fully saturated hemoglobin molecule?

hemoglobin is transporting four oxygen molecules

393

Although lung cancer is difficult to cure, it is highly preventable.

TRUE

394

Which of the following represents all of the processes involved in respiration in the correct order?

pulmonary ventilation; external respiration; transport of respiratory gases; internal respiration;

395

__________ has a greater partial pressure in the pulmonary capillaries than in the alveoli, so it diffuses into the __________.

CO2; alveoli

396

Which gas law explains why there is as much CO2 exchanged between the alveoli and blood as there is O2 exchanged, despite the fact that the partial pressure difference is so much smaller for CO2?

Henry’s law

397

How would the partial pressures of O2 and CO2 change in an exercising muscle?

The partial pressure of O2 would decrease, and the partial pressure of CO2 would increase.

398

Which way would O2 and CO2 diffuse during internal respiration?

O2 would diffuse into the cells, and CO2 would diffuse into the systemic capillaries.

399

Internal and external respiration depends on several factors. Which of the following is NOT an important factor in gas exchange?

the molecular weight of the gas

400

Which of the following is NOT a physical factor that influences pulmonary ventilation?

partial pressure of oxygen in the air

401

In pneumothorax, the lung collapses because ______.

intrapleural pressure is higher than intrapulmonary pressure

402

__________, the difference between the intrapulmonary and intrapleural pressures, prevents the lungs from collapsing.

Transpulmonary pressure

403

Dalton's law of partial pressures states that when a gas is in contact with a liquid, that gas will dissolve in the liquid in proportion to its partial pressure.

FALSE

404

Dalton's law states that the total pressure exerted by a mixture of gases is the sum of the pressures exerted independently by each gas in the mixture.

TRUE

405

Which of the following pressures must remain negative to prevent lung collapse?

intrapleural pressure

406

What part of the larynx covers the laryngeal inlet during swallowing to keep food out of the lower respiratory passages?

Epiglottis

407

What is the amount of air that can be exhaled with the greatest possible exhalation after the deepest inhalation called?

vital capacity

408

Which of the following pressure relationships best illustrates when inspiration will occur?

Ppul < Patm

409

Which volumes are combined to provide the inspiratory capacity?

tidal volume (TV) + inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)

410

Which of the following descriptions accurately describes Boyle’s law?

The pressure of gas in your lungs is inversely proportional to the volume in your lungs.

411

Which muscles, when contracted, would increase the volume of air in the thoracic cavity?

diaphragm and external intercostals

412

Which pressure is the result of the natural tendency of the lungs to decrease their size (because of elasticity) and the opposing tendency of the thoracic wall to pull outward and enlarge the lungs?

intrapleural pressure

413

During an allergic reaction, which of the following would aid respiration?

Epinephrine

414

If the transpulmonary pressure equals zero, what will happen to the lung?

lungs will collapse

415

Calculate the transpulmonary pressure if atmospheric pressure is 755 mm Hg.

4 mm Hg

416

In which region are the palatine tonsils found?

Oropharynx

417

Which of the following stimuli is the most powerful respiratory stimulant to increase respiration?

rising carbon dioxide levels

418

Which of the following would NOT be involved in causing bronchiolar constriction during an asthma attack?

adrenal medulla

419

The adenoids normally destroy pathogens because they contain ______.

Lymphocytes

420

Which of the following is NOT a function of the nasal conchae and mucosa?

to destroy pathogens entering the nasopharynx

421

Which muscles are activated during normal quiet inspiration?

diaphragm and external intercostal muscles

422

In babies born prematurely, pulmonary surfactant may not be present in adequate amounts ______.

due to insufficient exocytosis in the type II alveolar cells

423

What is the volume of the total amount of exchangeable air for a healthy, young adult male?

4800 ml

424

Which of the following is NOT a function of the larynx?

to assist in taste sensation

425

Which blood vessels supply oxygenated systemic blood to the lung tissue?

bronchial arteries

426

During the Valsalva's maneuver, what part of the larynx closes to increase intra-abdominal pressure, such as to help with defecation?

Glottis

427

Which of the following respiratory structures is more commonly known as the "throat"?

simple squamous epithelium

428

Since mucus-producing cells and cilia are sparse in the bronchioles and alveoli, how does the body remove microorganisms that make their way into the respiratory zone?

alveolar macrophages crawl freely along internal alveolar surfaces

429

The indentation on the medial surface of each lung through which pulmonary and systemic blood vessels, bronchi, lymphatic vessels, and nerves enter and leave is called the ___________.

Hilum

430

The alveoli are also known as alveolar sacs.

FALSE

431

Which of the following features characterizes the right lung?

presence of a superior, middle, and inferior lobe

432

The __________ is also known as the "guardian of the airways."

Epiglottis

433

Which parts of the respiratory system function as the main sites of gas exchange?

Alveoli

434

What is the most immediate driving force behind pulmonary ventilation?

intrapulmonary pressure change

435

Which of the following is NOT a function of the larynx?

serving as part of the respiratory zone

436

Which of the following is NOT a function of the nasal conchae?

routing air and food into proper channels

437

Tracheal obstruction is life threatening.

TRUE

438

Nasal conchae mainly work on inhalation to warm and moisten air. They serve minor functions for exhalation.

FALSE

439

The parietal pleura lines the thoracic wall.

TRUE

440

The main site of gas exchange is the ________.

Alveoli

441

Smoking diminishes ciliary action and eventually destroys the cilia.

FALSE

442

Which respiratory-associated muscles would contract if you were to blow up a balloon?

internal intercostals and abdominal muscles would contract

443

Which of the following incorrectly describes mechanisms of CO2 transport?

attached to the heme part of hemoglobin

444

Which of the choices below is not a role of the pleura?

aids in blood flow to and from the heart because the heart sits between the lungs

445

The functions of the nasal conchae are to enhance the air turbulence in the cavity and to increase the mucosal surface area exposed to the air.

TRUE

446

The respiratory membrane is a combination of ________.

alveolar and capillary walls and their fused basement membranes

447

Factors that influence the rate and depth of breathing include ________.

voluntary cortical control

448

Which of the following provide the greatest surface area for gas exchange?

Alveoli

449

The Hering-Breuer reflex is a potentially dangerous response that may cause overinflation of the lung.

FASLE

450

For gas exchange to be efficient, the respiratory membrane must be ________.

0.5 to 1 micrometer thick

451

Select the correct statement about the pharynx.

The auditory tube drains into the nasopharynx.

452

The larynx contains ________.

the thyroid cartilage

453

Which of the choices below is not a factor that promotes oxygen binding to and dissociation from hemoglobin?

number of red blood cells

454

Which of the choices below determines the direction of respiratory gas movement?

partial pressure gradient

455

Which of the following is not possible?

Pressure gradient equals gas flow over resistance.

456

A patient was admitted to the hospital with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. His PO2 was 55 and PCO2 was 65. A new resident orders 54% oxygen via the venturi mask. One hour later, after the oxygen was placed, the nurse finds the patient with no respiration or pulse. She calls for a Code Blue and begins cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). Why did the patient stop breathing?

Oxygen dilates pulmonary arterioles, increasing perfusion and worsening an already poor ventilation-perfusion mismatch. In addition, oxygen drives more CO2 off of hemoglobin, dumping it into alveoli from which it cannot be removed.

457

The paired lungs occupy all of the thoracic cavity.

FALSE

458

Ventilation perfusion coupling means that more blood flows past functional alveoli than past nonfunctional alveoli.

TRUE

459

The statement, "in a mixture of gases, the total pressure is the sum of the individual partial pressures of gases in the mixture" paraphrases ________.

Dalton's law

460

Labored breathing is termed dyspnea.

TRUE

461

Jane had been suffering through a severe cold and was complaining of a frontal headache and a dull, aching pain at the side of her face. What regions are likely to become sites of secondary infection following nasal infection?

The paranasal sinuses

462

The factors responsible for holding the lungs to the thorax wall are ________.

surface tension from pleural fluid and negative pressure in the pleural cavity

463

The nose serves all the following functions except ________.

as the direct initiator of the cough reflex

464

How will the lungs compensate for an acute rise in the partial pressure of CO2 in arterial blood?

Respiratory rate will increase.

465

The major nonelastic source of resistance to air flow in the respiratory passageways is ________.

Friction

466

Which statement about CO2 is incorrect?

More CO2 dissolves in the blood plasma than is carried in the RBCs.

467

The lungs are perfused by two circulations: the pulmonary and the bronchial. The pulmonary circulation is for oxygenation of blood. The bronchial circulation supplies blood to the lung structures (tissue).

TRUE

468

Intrapulmonary pressure is the ________.

pressure within the alveoli of the lungs

469

Most inspired particles such as dust fail to reach the lungs because of the ________.

ciliated mucous lining in the nose

470

Which of the choices below describes the forces that act to pull the lungs away from the thorax wall and thus collapse the lungs?

the natural tendency for the lungs to recoil and the surface tension of the alveolar fluid

471

Increased temperature results in decreased O2 unloading from hemoglobin.

FALSE

472

Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in the lungs and through all cell membranes by ________.

Diffusion

473

Unlike inspiration, expiration is a passive act because no muscular contractions are involved. Expiration, however, depends on two factors. Which of the choices below lists those two factors?

the recoil of elastic fibers that were stretched during inspiration and the inward pull of surface tension due to the film of alveolar fluid

474

Select the correct statement about the neural mechanisms of respiratory control.

The pons is thought to be instrumental in the smooth transition from inspiration to expiration.

475

Which of the following is not an event necessary to supply the body with O2 and dispose of CO2?

blood pH adjustment

476

Which center is located in the pons?

pontine respirator group (PRG)

477

The largest amount of carbon dioxide is transported in the bloodstream in the form of carbonic anhydrase.

FALSE

478

Oxygenated hemoglobin releases oxygen more readily when the pH is more basic.

FALSE

479

The alveolar ventilation rate is the best index of effective ventilation.

TRUE

480

Atelectasis (lung collapse) renders the lung useless for ventilation.

TRUE

481

Complete the following statement using the choices below. Air moves out of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is

greater than the pressure in the atmosphere.

482

As carbon dioxide enters systemic blood, it causes more oxygen to dissociate from hemoglobin (the Haldane effect), which in turn allows more CO2 to combine with hemoglobin and more bicarbonate ion to be generated (the Bohr effect).

FALSE

483

Gas emboli may occur because a ________.

diver holds his breath upon ascent

484

During normal quiet breathing, approximately 750 ml of air moves into and out of the lungs with each breath.

FALSE

485

The average individual has 500 ml of residual volume in his lungs.

FALSE

486

The most powerful respiratory stimulus for breathing in a healthy person is ________.

increase of carbon dioxide

487

The relationship between gas pressure and gas volume is described by ________.

Boyle's law

488

Strong emotions and pain acting through the limbic system activate sympathetic centers in the hypothalamus, thus modulating respiratory rate and depth by sending signals to the respiratory centers.

TRUE

489

Valsalva's maneuver involves closing off the glottis (preventing expiration) while contracting the muscles of expiration, causing an increase in intra-abdominal pressure.

TRUE

490

Changes in arterial pH can modify respiration rate and rhythm even when carbon dioxide and oxygen levels are normal.

TRUE

491

The olfactory mucosal lining of the nasal cavity contains the receptors for the sense of smell.

TRUE

492

Surfactant helps to prevent the alveoli from collapsing by ________.

interfering with the cohesiveness of water molecules, thereby reducing the surface tension of alveolar fluid

493

Which of the following statements about aldosterone is NOT correct?

Aldosterone increases sodium reabsorption by increasing the number of Na+-K+ ATPase pumps in the luminal membrane of the proximal tubule.

494

Which of the following statements about ADH (antidiuretic hormone) is correct?

ADH is released by the posterior pituitary gland.

495

What is the osmolarity of the filtrate at the end of the proximal tubule?

isotonic – 300 mOsm

496

In overhydration, what would be the levels of ADH (high, normal, or low) and what would be the osmolarity of the urine?

ADH – low; 100 mOsm (urine)

497

In severe dehydration or blood loss, what would be the levels of ADH and what would be the urine flow rate?

ADH – high; low urine flow rate (0.25 ml/min)

498

Which of the following promotes the formation of dilute urine?

Under normal conditions, the large renal arteries deliver one-fourth of the total cardiac output (about 1200 ml) to the kidneys each minute.

499

Which of the following promotes the formation of urine?

decreased osmolarity of extracellular fluids

500

The __________ is an outer layer of dense fibrous connective tissue that anchors the kidney and the adrenal gland to surrounding structures. The __________ prevents infections in surrounding regions from spreading to the kidneys.

renal fascia; fibrous capsule


Related pages


name the bones of the pelvic girdlegreater tuberosity of femurperiplasmic spacethe lymphatic system and lymphoid organs and tissuesncea levelsvascular system quizwhere is the adductor muscle locatedrepolarization phasehow was the geography of nubia different from egyptprimary functions of vitaminsal2s3 lewis structurelevator scapulae originexamples of demographic segmentationmoist lung soundswhat is the major extracellular anionmarriage helperwhich of the following contains hydrolytic enzymesbiology vocabulary definitionstetracycline spectrum of activitydefinition of recessive traitthe glucose sodium cotransporterauxin causes bending in stems and roots by9th grade vocab wordssuffix for destructionkeratitis precipitateconiferous forest climate and weathersummation biologybiology vocabulary definitionspolymers of lipidschoose the connective that belongs in the blankmeichenbaum cognitive behavior modificationselect the correct statement about the evolution of animalsfat embolism amputationthalamic neurons that project to the primary sensory cortex arepsychology memory quizletnumber of protons neutrons and electrons in tinoutbound logistics activities focus on thecapillary blood vesselptt test proceduredebunking 911 pentagonpartition postulate definitiongametes and somatic cellswhat hormones are secreted by the kidneyswhat are the reactants for photosynthesiswbc valuesvertebral nerveschapter 42 circulation and gas exchangean enzyme that will digest proteins into peptides ishow does complement cause bacterial lysisoxidation fermentation testhow does osmosis help to maintain blood volumewhere does dna polymerase come fromprimary elections in texas are usually heldthe posterior root ganglia containamendments matching quizsomatic nervous system examplesstates and capitals of the midwesteasy notecards anatomy and physiologynursing care plan of cholelithiasissuperficial veins of upper limbsimple reflex arc definitioncutaneous glandsav o2 differencestreaking for isolationwhat energizes the power strokemacroeconomics chapter 5 quizthe ear and hearing and balance anatomyfold mountain rangesphototropic responsevisual anatomy and physiology pdfdosage calculations quizlet