Chapter 18, 20

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Microbiology
Chapter 18
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1

Which of the following best describes vaccination?

An individual is exposed to a killed pathogen, an inactivated pathogen, or a component of a pathogen. The individual is protected from subsequent exposures to the pathogen because the adaptive immune system is stimulated to produce memory B cells and memory T cells, which protect from subsequent exposures

2

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of using live attenuated vaccines?

They are usually safer than other types of vaccines.

3

What is an adjuvant?

a chemical additive that increases the effectiveness of vaccines

4

What is the purpose of conjugated vaccines?

to enhance the immune response of children to polysaccharide antigens

5

All of the following are generally used in vaccines EXCEPT

antibodies.

6

A patient shows the presence of antibodies against diphtheria toxin. Which of the following statements is FALSE?

The patient was near someone who had the disease.

7

A DNA plasmid encoding a protein antigen from West Nile virus is injected into muscle cells of a horse. This is an example of a(n)

nucleic acid vaccine.

8

Toxoid vaccines, such as the vaccines against diphtheria and tetanus, elicit a(n)

antibody response against these bacterial toxins.

9

What type of vaccine involves host synthesis of viral antigens?

nucleic acid vaccine

10

An injection of naked DNA into muscle cells to induce an immune response against the proteins encoded by the DNA is an example of a subunit vaccine.

False

11

In a vaccine preparation, the term attenuated means that the agent does NOT replicate

False

12

Vaccines are preparations of organisms or fractions of organisms that are used to induce protective immune responses.

True

13

Which of the following statements about measles is FALSE?

The disease has been eradicated in the United States.

14

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of live attenuated vaccine agents?

They occasionally revert to virulent forms.

15

Dead Bordetella pertussis can be used in a(n)

inactivated whole-agent vaccine.

16

Live polio virus can be used in a(n)

attenuated whole-agent vaccine.

17

Haemophilus capsule polysaccharide plus diphtheria toxoid is a(n)

conjugated vaccine.

18

Inactivated tetanus toxin is a(n)

toxoid vaccine.

19

A vaccine against HIV proteins made by vaccinia virus is a(n)

subunit vaccine.

20

What type of vaccine is the live measles virus?

attenuated whole-agent vaccine

21

Purified protein from Bordetella pertussis is used in a(n)

subunit vaccine.

22

a reaction between an antibody and soluble antigen-forming lattices is called a

precipation

23

a substances added to a vaccine to increase its effectiveness

adjuvant

24

a reaction between antibody and particulate antigen is called a

agglutination reaction

25

hepatitis B virus surface antigen can be used in a

subunit vaccine

26

adjuvants such as aluminum salts are used as additives in vaccines to enhance immune responses

true

27

a vaccine containing a live weakened microorganism

attenuated vaccine

28

a vaccine containing microbes that have been killed

inactivated

29

a vaccine that uses only those antigenic fragments of a microorganism that best stimulate an immune response

subunit

30

a vaccine consisting of the desired antigen and other proteins

conjugated

31

a vaccine made up of DNA, usually in the form of a plasmid

nucleic acid

32

If penicillin G is chosen as the best treatment for a given infection, what microorganisms are most likely the cause?

gram-positive bacteria

33

Why is it more difficult to treat viral infections than it is to treat bacterial infections?

Viruses use the host cell's processes to carry out their own reproduction.

34

Sulfanilamides interfere with __________.

folic acid synthesis in bacteria

35

consider a Kirby-Bauer disk-diffusion assay. If you put penicillin and streptomycin disks adjacent to one another, the zone of inhibition is greater than that obtained by either disk alone. This is an example of __________.

synergism

36

Which statement regarding tests for microbial susceptibility to chemotherapeutic agents is FALSE?

The Kirby-Bauer test is useful because it can differentiate bacteriostatic effects from bactericidal effects.

37

More than half of the antibiotics used today are produced by

Streptomyces species

38

A drug that inhibits mitosis, such as griseofulvin, would be more effective against

fungi.

39

Antimicrobial peptides work by

disrupting the plasma membrane.

40

In what way are semisynthetic penicillins and natural penicillins alike?

Both are based on β-lactam.

41

Which of the following antibiotics is NOT bactericidal?

polyenes

42

The antibiotic tetracycline binds to the 30S subunit of the ribosome, as shown in the figure. The effect is to

interfere with the attachment of the tRNA to mRNA-ribosome complex.

43

A drug binds to the ribosome as shown in the figure. The effect is to

prevent peptide bond formation

44

Which of the following methods of action would be bacteriostatic?

inhibition of protein synthesis

45

Which of the following antibiotics is recommended for use against gram-negative bacteria?

polymyxin

46

More than half of our antibiotics are

produced by bacteria.

47

Which of the following is mismatched?

Florey and Chain - identification of Penicillium as the producer of penicillin

48

Which compound would be the most useful to treat candidiasis?

flucytosine

49

Which of the following antibiotics are used to treat fungal infections?
1. aminoglycosides
2. cephalosporins
3. griseofulvin
4. polyenes
5. bacitracin

3 and 4

50

Which of the following antibiotics does NOT interfere with cell wall synthesis?

macrolides

51

The antimicrobial drugs with the broadest spectrum of activity are

tetracyclines.

52

Protozoan and helminthic diseases are difficult to treat because

their cells are structurally and functionally similar to human cells.

53

Which of the following statements about drug resistance is FALSE?

It is found only in gram-negative bacteria.

54

Antiviral drugs target viral processes that occur during viral infection.

True

55

Only microbes produce antimicrobial peptides.

False

56

Penicillin and streptomycin are commonly used in syngerism because they display the same mode of action.

False

57

Undergrowth of fungi after antibiotic use is commonly referred to as a superinfection.

False

58

PABA serves as the competitive inhibitor in the action of sulfanilamides.

False

59

Use of antibiotics in animal feed leads to antibiotic-resistant bacteria because

the antibiotics kill susceptible bacteria, but the few that are naturally resistant live and reproduce, and their progeny repopulate the host animal.

60

Drug resistance occurs

when antibiotics are used indiscriminately.

61

Which of the following would be selective against the tubercle bacillus?

ethambutol – inhibits mycolic acid synthesis

62

In the presence of penicillin, a cell dies because

it undergoes lysis.

63

Which of the following statements about drugs that competitively inhibit DNA polymerase or RNA polymerase is FALSE?

They cause cellular plasmolysis.

64

Which of the following does NOT affect eukaryotic cells?

semisynthetic penicillins

65

Community-acquired MRSA is typically more virulent than health care-associated MRSA.

True

66

due to its target, rifamycins can be effective over a broad spectrum

true

67

Which one of the following does NOT belong with the others?
A. Bacitracin
B. Cephalosporin
C. Monobactam
D. Penicillin
E. Streptomycin

Streptomycin


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