A & P 242 Final Exam

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1

Which of the following is NOT a function of a hormone?

A) Regulates chemical composition and volume of the internal environment?

B) Regulates metabolism

C) Regulates glandular secretions

D) Produces electrolytes

E) Controls growth and development

Controls growth and development

2

A type of hormone that acts on neighboring cells without entering the bloodstream.

A) Local hormone

B) Paracrine

C) Autocrine

D) Circulating hormone

Both A& B

3

Which of the following are a group of lipid-soluble hormones derived from cholesterol.

A) Steroids

B) Thyroid hormones

C) Nitric oxide

D) Amine hormones

E) Peptide hormones

Steroids

4

Which of the following statements correctly compares water-soluble hormones with lipid-soluble hormones?

A) Both types of hormone are carried in the blood attached to a carrier protein.

B) Both types of hormone almost always stimulate increases in mRNA transcription.

C) Only water-soluble hormones use second messengers

D) Only water-soluble hormones require a receptor

E) Lipid-soluble hormones are not found in the bloodsteam.

Only water-soluble hormones use second messengers

5

When one hormone opposes the action of another hormone it is called.

A) synergistic effect

B) permissive effect

C) antagonistic effect

D) circulating effect

E) local effect

antagonistic effect

6

Which of the following is NOT a common method of stimulating hormone secretion from an endocrine cell?

A) Signals from the nervous system

B) Chemical changes in the blood

C) Mechanical stretching of the endocrine cell

D) Releasing hormones

E) Both signals from the nervous system and Chemical changes in the blood.

Mechanical stretching of the endocrine cell

7

What controls hormone release from the anterior pituitary gland?

A) muscle contraction

B) The peripheral nervous system

C) Hormones released from the hypothalamus

D) Action potentials from the thalamus

E) Chemical changes in the cerebrospinal fluid

Hormones released from the hypothalamus

8

Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones stimuates general body growth.

A) growth hormone

B) prolactin

C) Thyrotropin

D) Luteinizing hormone

E) Adrenocorticopic hormone

growth hormone

9

Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones stimulates milk production?

A) Luteinzing hormone

B) prolactin

C) Thyrotropin

D) Melanocyte stimulating hormone

E) Adrenocorticotropic hormone

prolactin

10

Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones stimulates the adrenal cortex to secret cortisol?

A) Leutinizing hormone

B) Prolactin

C) Insulin-like growth factors

D) Melanocyte-stimulating hormone

E) Adrenocorticotropic hormone

Adrenocorticotropic hormone

11

Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones stimulate the gonads to secrete progesterone and/or testosterone?

A) Luteinizing hormone

B) TSH
C)Corticotropin

D) Melanocyte-stimulating hormone

E) Growth hormone

Luteinizing hormone

12

Which type of anterior pituitary cell secretes human growth hormone?

A) Thyrotrophs

B) Gonadotrophs

C) Somatotrophs

D) Lactotrophs

E) Corticotrophs

Somatotrophs

13

Which of the following pairs of hormones are secreted by the posterior pituitary gland?

A) Proplactin and growth hormonw

B) Melatonin-stimulating hormone and oxytocin

C) Oxytocin and anti-diuretic hormone

D) Follicle-stimulating hormone and thyroid-stimulating hormone

E) Prolactin and ACTH

Oxytocin and anti-diuretic hormone

14

The amount of ADH that is secreted by the posterior pituitay gland varies with

A) blood osmotic pressure

B) blood calcium levels

C) blood oxygen levels

D) blood glucose levels

E) All of these choices

blood osmotic pressure

15

Which of the following hormones opposes the action of parathyroid hormone?

A) Thyroid- stimulating hormone

B) Testosterone

C) Insulin

D) Calcitonin

E) Calcitriol

Calcitonin

16

Which of the following statements does NOT describe a step in the synthesis and secretion of T3 and T4?

A) Iodide trapping

B) Oxidation of iodide

C) Coupling of T1 and T2

D) Synthesis of Calcitonin

E) Iodination of tyrosine

Synthesis of Calcitonin

17

Parathyroid hormone is the major regulator of the plasma concentration of which of the following ions?

A) Calcium

B) Sodium

C) Potassium

D) Chloride

E) Manganese

Calcium

18

Which of the following conditions would result from hyposecretion of aldosterone?

A) Decreased heart rate

B) Decreased airway dilation

C) dehydration

D) Decreased oxygen delivery to the brain

E) Metabolic acidosis

dehydration

19

Which of the following is NOT a common effect of glucocorticoid stimulation?

A) Protein and fat breakdown

B) Glucose formation

C) Depression of immune responses

D) Reduction of inflammation

E) Increased production of all types of blood cells

Increased production of all types of blood cells

20

Which blood glucose-lowering hormone is produced by the pancreatic islet cells?

A) Insulin

B) Glucagon

C) Somatostatin

D) Thyroid hormoes

E) Calcitonin

Insulin

21

Which of the following hormones promotes incrases in the basal metabolic rate ( BMR) ?

A) Insulin

B) Adrenocorticoptropic hormone

C) Glucagon

D) Thyroid hormone

E) Calcitonin

Thyroid hormone

22

Which of the following hormones play key regulatory roles in the body's long-term response to stress?

A) Insulin, Glucagon, Thyroid hormone

B) hGH, Insulin, Aldosterone

C) Cortisol, hGH Thyroid horone

D) Parathyroid hormone, Cortisol, hGH

E) Calcitonin, Thyroid hormone, Insulin

Cortisol, hGH Thyroid horone

23

Which of the following is NOT a common response of the body to long-term stress

A) Increased lipolysis

B) Increased glycogenesis

C) Increased gluconeogensis

D) Increased digestive activities

E) Increased breakdown of proteins

Increased digestive activities

24

Which of the following hormones is an amine hormone derived from serotonic?

A) Melatonin

B) Melanin

C) Glucose

D) Glucocorticoid

E) Eicosanoid

Melatonin

25

Which of the following glands is NOT an endocrine gland?

A) pituitary gland

B) throid gland

C) adrenal gland

D) sebaceous gland

E) pineal gland

sebaceous gland

26

Since insulin released from the pancreas is carried in the bloodstream to distant target cells, like muscle cells, it is considered to be a

A) local hormone

B) circulating hormone

C) panacrine

D) autocrine

E) neurotramitter

circulating hormone

27

Which of the following is an example of hormone that is secreted from an endocrine gland in response to a chemical change in the blood?

A) Parathyroid hormone release from the parathryroid gland

B) insulin release from the pancreas

C) glucagon release from the pancreas

D) ADH release from the posterior pituitary gland

E) all of the answer selection are correct

all of the answer selection are correct

28

Which hormonal influence on the muscular system is correctly described?

A) Thyroid hormone decreases muscle mass

B) Calcitonin is the primary regulator of CA2+ needed for contraction

C) Epinephrine helps increase blood flow to exercising muscle

D) Erythropoietin blocks formation of erythrocytes

E) ADH promotes water loss

Epinephrine helps increase blood flow to exercising muscle

29

Which of the following is NOT a major function of the blood?

A) Transportation of nutrients

B) Regulation of blood pH

C) Protection against infectious disease

D) Transportation of heat

E) Production of oxygen

Production of oxygen

30

The normal average temperature of blood is around

A) 98.6

B) 100.4

C) 90.8

D) 89.6

E) 101.6

100.4

31

The normal pH range for blood is

A) 7.35-8.50

B) 7.35-9.45

C) 6.35-7.35

D) 6.35-9.35

E) 7.35-7.45

7.35-7.45

32

The hematocrit is a measure of the percentage of whole blood occupied by

A) WBCs

B) platelets

C) RBCs

D) plasma

E) plasma proteins

RBCs

33

What percentage of blood plasma is water

A) 95.1

B) 91.5

C) 88.5

D) 4.9

E) 8.5

91.5

34

Which of the following plasma proteins play a role in disease resistance?

A) albumin

B) Globulins

C) Fibrinogen

D) Myoglobin

E) Hemoglobin

Globulins

35

Which of the following plasma proteins plays a role in blood clotting?

A) Albumin

B) globulins

C) Fibrinogen

D) Prostaglandins

E) None of these choices

Fibrinogen

36

The process by which the formed elements of the blood develop is called

A) hematospermia

B) hemopoiesis

C) thrombocytosis

D) hemostastis

E) polycythemia

hemopoiesis

37

During hemopoiesis, some of the myeloid stem cells will eventually develop into

A) proerythroblsts

B) T lymphoblasts

C) B lymphoblasts

D) NK lymphoblasts

E) all of these choices

proerythroblsts

38

The major function of red blood cells is

A) nutrient transport

B) cytokine stimulation

C) blood cell proliferation

D) gas transport

E) disease resistance

gas transport

39

Towards the end of erythropoiesis in the bone marrow, a red blood cell loses its nucleus and becomes a

A) proerythroblast

B) megakarycyte

C) progenitor cell

D) mature erythrocyte

E) reticulocyte

reticulocyte

40

Which of the following blood cells is involved in reducing blood loss from a damaged blood vessel.

A) Erythrocyte

B) platelet

C) lymphocyte

D) Basophil

E) Neutrophil

platelet

41

Which of the following blood cells release granules that intensify the inflammatory response and promote hypersensitivity ( allergic0 reactions?

A) eosinophil

B) monovyte

C) lymphocyte

D) basophil

E) neutrophil

basophil

42

Which of the following blood cells are the main soldiers in the immune system defense of the body against microbial invaders

A) eosinphil

B) macrophase

C) lymphocyte

D) basophil

E) platelet

lymphocyte

43

The process of a while blood cell squeezing between endothelial cells to exit a blood vessel is called

A) emigration

B) diaphysis

C) adhesion

D) opsonization

E) phagocytosis

emigration

44

Which of the following chemical substances are NOT commonly released by mast cells?

A) Heparin

B) Histamine

C) Nitric oxide

D) proteases

E) all of the choices

Nitric oxide

45

Which of following correctly lists the sequence of steps that occur during hemostasis in response to a damaged blood vessel?

A) vascular spasm, clotting, polycythemia

B) hemolysis, vascular spasm, platelet plug formation

C) emigration, clotting, hemolysis

D) vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, clotting

E) anemia, hemogenesis, platelet plug formation

vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, clotting

46

Which of the following situations could result in maternal antibodies attacking fetal blood cells during a second pregnancy?

A) Mom is Rh negative and fetus is Rh negative

B) Mom is Rh negative and fetus is Rh positive

C) Mom is Rh positive and fetus is Rh negative

D) Mom is Rh positive and fetus is Rh positive

Mom is Rh negative and fetus is Rh positive

47

Which of the following substances is an anticoagulant produced by mast cells and basophils?

A) Heparin

B) Fibrinogen

C) Thromboxane A2

D) Prostacyclin

E) Plasmin

Fibrinogen

48

Ferritin is a protein used to

A) transport ion in the blood

B) store iron in the liver

C) oxidize iron in the peroxisomes

D) synthesize iron

E) absorb iron across intestinal cells

store iron in the liver

49

Approximately, how many hemoglobin molecules are found in each RBC

A) 50 million

B) 100 million

C) 280 million

D) 320 million

E) 430 million

280 million

50

A megakaryoblast will develop into

A) a red blood cell

B) a while blood cell

C) a platelet

D) either a white blood or a platelet

E) none of these choices

a red blood cell

51

Normal heart sounds are caused by which of the following event

A) closure of the heart valves

B)friction of blood against the chamber walls

C)excitation of the SA node

D) opening and closing of the heart valves

closure of the heart valves

52

Hemorrhage with a large loss of blood causes ________.

A) a lowering of blood pressure due to change in cardiac output

B) a rise in blood pressure due to change in cardiac output

C)no change in blood pressure but a change in respiration

D) no change in blood pressure but a slower heart rate

a lowering of blood pressure due to change in cardiac output

53

Which of the events below does not occur when the semilunar valves are open?

A) Blood enters pulmonary arteries and the aorta.

B)Ventricles are in systole.

C)AV valves are closed.

D)Ventricles are in diastole.

Ventricles are in diastole.

54

The left ventricular wall of the heart is thicker than the right wall in order to ________.

A) pump blood with greater pressure

B) accommodate a greater volume of blood

C) pump blood through a smaller valve

D) expand the thoracic cage during diastole

pump blood with greater pressure

55

Damage to the ________ is referred to as heart block.

A) AV node

B) SA node

C) AV bundle

D) AV valves

AV node

56

Blood within the pulmonary veins returns to the ________.

A) right ventricle
B) right atrium
C) left ventricle
D) left atrium

left atrium

57

The condition where fluid compresses the heart and limits its ability to contract is called ________

A) myocardial infarction
B) pericarditis

C) angina pectoris
D) cardiac tamponade

cardiac tamponade

58

The source of blood carried to capillaries in the myocardium would be the ________.

A) coronary arteries
B) fossa ovalis

C) coronary veins
D) coronary sinus

coronary arteries

59

The fact that the left ventricle of the heart is thicker than the right ventricle reveals that it ________.

A) sends blood through a smaller valve
B) pumps blood against a greater resistance

C) pumps a greater volume of blood
D) expands the thoracic cage

pumps blood against a greater resistance

60

Which of the following factors does not influence heart rate?

A) gender
B) skin color

C) body temperature
D) age

gender

61

If cardiac muscle is deprived of its normal blood supply, damage would primarily result from ________.

A) a lack of nutrients to feed into metabolic pathways

B) a decrease in the number of available mitochondria for energy production

C) an inadequate supply of lactic acid

D) decreased delivery of oxygen

decreased delivery of oxygen

62

A foramen ovale ________.

A) is a shallow depression in the interventricular septum

B) is a connection between the pulmonary trunk and the aorta in the fetus

C) connects the two atria in the fetal heart

D) is a condition in which the heart valves do not completely close

connects the two atria in the fetal heart

63

Which vessel(s) of the heart receive(s) blood during right ventricular systole?

A) pulmonary veins
B) pulmonary trunk

C) venae cavae
D) aorta

pulmonary trunk

64

Which of the following is not part of the conduction system of the heart?

A) SA node
B) bundle of His
C) AV node
D) AV valve

AV Valve

65

When viewing a dissected heart, it is easy to visually discern the right and left ventricles by ________.

A) tracing out where the auricles connect

B) finding the papillary muscles

C) noticing the thickness of the ventricle walls

D) locating the apex

noticing the thickness of the ventricle walls

66

Select the correct statement about the heart valves.

A) The tricuspid valve divides the left atrium from the left ventricle.

B) Aortic and pulmonary valves control the flow of blood into the heart.

C) The mitral valve separates the right atrium from the right ventricle.

D) The AV valves are supported by chordae tendineae so that regurgitation of blood into the atria during ventricular contraction does not occur.

The AV valves are supported by chordae tendineae so that regurgitation of blood into the atria during ventricular contraction does not occur.

67

Select the correct statement about the function of myocardial cells.

A) The influx of potassium ions from extracellular sources is the initiating event in cardiac muscle contraction.

B) The entire heart contracts as a unit or it does not contract at all.

C) Cardiac muscle cells are innervated by sympathetic, parasympathetic, and somatic nerve fibers so that the nervous system can increase heart rate.

D) The refractory period in skeletal muscle is much longer than that in cardiac muscle.

The entire heart contracts as a unit or it does not contract at all.

68

Select the correct statement about cardiac output.

A) Stroke volume increases if end diastolic volume decreases.

B) If a semilunar valve were partially obstructed, the end systolic volume in the affected ventricle would be decreased.

C) Decreased venous return will result in increased end diastolic volume.

D) A slow heart rate increases end diastolic volume, stroke volume, and force of contraction.

A slow heart rate increases end diastolic volume, stroke volume, and force of contraction.

69

Which of the following is not one of the three main factors influencing blood pressure?

A) emotional state
B) cardiac output

C) peripheral resistance
D) blood volume

emotional state

70

Which of the following chemicals does not help regulate blood pressure?

A) ADH
B) angiotensin II

C) atrial natriuretic peptide
D) nitric acid

nitric acid

71

Which statement best describes arteries?

A) Only large arteries are lined with endothelium.

B) All contain valves to prevent the backflow of blood.

C) All carry oxygenated blood to the heart.

D) All carry blood away from the heart.

All carry blood away from the heart.

72

Permitting the exchange of nutrients and gases between the blood and tissue cells is the primary function of ________.

A) arteries
B) veins
C) arterioles
D) capillaries

capillaries

73

The arteries that are also called distributing arteries are the ________.

A) capillaries
B) elastic arteries

C) muscular arteries
D) arterioles

muscular arteries

74

Aldosterone will ________.

A) result in a larger output of urine
B) promote a decrease in blood volume

C) decrease sodium reabsorption
D) promote an increase in blood pressure

promote an increase in blood pressure

75

Which of the following signs of hypovolemic shock is a relatively late sign?

A) increased heart rate
B) rapid, thready pulse

C) rapidly falling blood pressure
D) cold, clammy skin

rapidly falling blood pressure

76

Which of the following is true about veins?

A) Up to 35% of total body blood is in venous circulation at any given time.

B) Veins have a small lumen in relation to the thickness of the vessel wall.

C) Venous valves are formed from the tunica media.

D) Veins are called capacitance vessels or blood reservoirs.

Veins are called capacitance vessels or blood reservoirs.

77

Which of the following processes provides a long-term response to changes in blood pressure?

A) renal regulation
B) neural controls

C) baroreceptor-initiated reflexes
D) chemoreceptor-initiated reflexes

renal regulation

78

Peripheral resistance ________.

A) increases as blood vessel diameter increases

B) decreases with increasing length of the blood vessel

C) is not a major factor in blood pressure in healthy individuals

D) increases as blood viscosity increases

increases as blood viscosity increases

79

Which of the choices below reflects the balance (or imbalance) between the direction and amount of fluid that flows across the capillary walls?

A) plasma and formed element concentration

B) hydrostatic pressure only

C) hydrostatic and osmotic pressure

D) blood volume and viscosity

hydrostatic and osmotic pressure

80

Which tunic of an artery is most responsible for maintaining blood pressure and continuous blood circulation?
A) tunica media
B) tunica intima

C) tunica adventitia
D) tunica externa

tunica media

81

Which of the following is the most significant source of blood flow resistance?

A) total blood vessel length
B) blood vessels type

C) blood vessel diameter
D) blood viscosity

blood vessel diameter

82

Which of the following are involved directly in pulmonary circulation?

A) right atrium, aorta, and left ventricle

B) right ventricle, pulmonary artery, and left atrium

C) left ventricle, aorta, and inferior vena cava

D) superior vena cava, right atrium, and left ventricle

right ventricle, pulmonary artery, and left atrium

83

The arteries that directly feed into the capillary beds are called ________.

A) elastic arteries
B) muscular arteries

C) arterioles
D) venules

arterioles

84

Which of the following blood pressure readings would be indicative of hypertension?

A) 110/60 in a 20-year-old woman
B) 170/96 in a 50-year-old man

C) 120/80 in a 30-year-old man
D) 140/90 in a 70-year-old woman

170/96 in a 50-year-old man

85

A thrombus (blood clot) in the first branch of the arch of the aorta would affect the flow of blood to the ________.

A) left upper arm

B) myocardium of the heart

C) left side of the head and neck

D) right side of the head and neck and right upper arm

right side of the head and neck and right upper arm

86

The baroreceptors in the carotid sinus and aortic arch are sensitive to which of the following?

A) changes in arterial pressure
B) a decrease in oxygen levels

C) an increase in oxygen levels
D) a decrease in carbon dioxide

changes in arterial pressure

87

True/False

Whereas diffusion is more important for solute exchange between plasma and interstitial fluid, bulk flow is more important for regulation of the relative volumes of blood and interstitial fluid.

True

88

True/False

An increase in blood viscosity will cause an increase in peripheral resistance.

True

89

True/False

An obstruction in the superior vena cava would decrease the flow of blood from the head and neck to the heart.

True

90

True/False

Vasodilation is a widening of the lumen due to smooth muscle contraction.

False

91

True/False

Hypotension is generally considered systolic blood pressure that is below 100 mm Hg.

True

92

True/False

The outermost layer of a blood vessel is the tunica intima.

False

93

True/False

Osmotic pressure is created by the presence in a fluid of small diffusible molecules that easily move through the capillary membrane.

False

94

True/False

Arterial pressure in the pulmonary circulation is much higher than in the systemic circulation because of its proximity to the heart.

False

95

True/False

The adjustment of blood flow to each tissue in proportion to its requirements at any point in time is termed autoregulation.

True

96

The mechanical and chemical receptors that control digestive activity are located ________.

A) in the walls of the tract organs

B) in the pons and medulla

C) in the oral cavity

D) in the glandular tissue that lines the organ lumen

in the walls of the tract organs

97

The chemical and mechanical processes of food breakdown are called ________

A) secretion
B) absorption
C) ingestion
D) digestion

digestion

98

When we ingest large molecules such as lipids, carbohydrates, and proteins, they must undergo catabolic reactions whereby enzymes split these molecules. This series of reactions is called ________.

A) mechanical digestion
B) absorption

C) secretion
D) chemical digestion

chemical digestion

99

The sheets of peritoneal membrane that hold the digestive tract in place are called ________.

A) serosal lining
B) mucosal lining
C) mesenteries
D) lamina propria

mesenteries

100

From the esophagus to the anal canal, the walls of every organ of the alimentary canal are made up of the same four basic layers. Arrange them in order from the lumen.

A) submucosa, serosa, muscularis externa, and mucosa

B) mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, and serosa

C) muscularis externa, serosa, mucosa, and submucosa

D) serosa, mucosa, submucosa, and muscularis externa

mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, and serosa

101

What part of the tooth bears the force of chewing?

A) cementum
B) pulp
C) crown
D) enamel

enamel

102

Which hormone causes an increased output of enzyme-rich pancreatic juice and stimulates gallbladder contraction to release bile?

A) secretin
B) cholecystokinin

C) gastric inhibitor peptide
D) gastrin

cholecystokinin

103

The absorptive effectiveness of the small intestine is enhanced by increasing the surface area of the mucosal lining. Which of the following accomplish this task?

A) Brunner's glands and Peyer Patches
B) the vast array of digestive enzymes

C) the rugae and haustra
D) plicae circulares, villi, and microvilli

plicae circulares, villi, and microvilli

104

The salivary glands are composed of which two types of secretory cells?

A) parietal cells and glial cells

B) serous cells and mucous cells

C) cuboidal epithelium and ciliated columnar cells

D) goblet cells and squamous epithelial cells

serous cells and mucous cells

105

In addition to storage and mechanical breakdown of food, the stomach ________.

A) is the first site where chemical digestion of starch takes place

B) is the only place where fats are completely digested

C) initiates protein digestion and denatures proteins

D) is the first site where absorption takes place

initiates protein digestion and denatures proteins

106

Chyme is created in the ________.

A) esophagus
B) small intestine
C) stomach
D) mouth

stomach

107

Hydrochloric acid is secreted by which of the secretory cells of the stomach?

A) serous cells
B) chief cells

C) parietal cells
D) mucous neck cells

parietal cells

108

There are three phases of gastric secretion. The cephalic phase occurs ________.

A) immediately after food enters the stomach, preparing the small intestine for the influx of a variety of nutrients

B) when the meal is excessively high in acids and neutralization is required

C) before food enters the stomach and is triggered by aroma, sight, or thought

D) at the end of a large meal, and the juices secreted are powerful and remain in the GI tract for a long period of time

before food enters the stomach and is triggered by aroma, sight, or thought

109

Peristaltic waves are ________.

A) churning movements of the gastrointestinal tract

B) segmental regions of the gastrointestinal tract

C) waves of muscular contractions that propel contents from one point to another

D) pendular movements of the gastrointestinal tract

waves of muscular contractions that propel contents from one point to another

110

Pepsinogen, a digestive enzyme, is secreted by the ________.

A) Brunner's glands
B) goblet cells of the small intestine

C) chief cells of the stomach
D) parietal cells of the duodenum

chief cells of the stomach

111

You have just eaten a meal high in complex carbohydrates. Which of the following enzymes will help to digest the meal?

A)trypsin
B) cholecystokinin
C) gastrin
D) amylase

amylase

112

The ducts that deliver bile and pancreatic juice from the liver and pancreas, respectively, unite to form the ________.

A)pancreatic acini
B) portal vein

C) bile canaliculus
D) hepatopancreatic ampulla

hepatopancreatic ampulla

113

The enzymatic breakdown of any type of food molecule is called ________.

A)hydrolysis
B) denatured
C) active transport
D) diffusion

hydrolysis

114

Parietal cells of the stomach produce ________.

A) hydrochloric acid
B) mucin

C) pepsinogen
D) rennin

hydrochloric acid

115

Which vitamin requires intrinsic factor in order to be absorbed?

A) K
B) B12
C) A
D) C

B12

116

Chemical digestion reduces large complex molecules to simpler compounds by the process of ________.

A) fermentation
B) mastication
C) anabolism
D) catabolism

catabolism

117

The function of goblet cells is to ________.

A) secrete buffers in order to keep the pH of the digestive tract close to neutral

B) provide protection against invading bacteria and other disease-causing organisms that enter the digestive tract in food

C) absorb nutrients from digested food and store them for future use

D) produce mucus that protects parts of the digestive organs from the effects of powerful enzymes needed for food digestion

produce mucus that protects parts of the digestive organs from the effects of powerful enzymes needed for food digestion

118

Which of the following produce intrinsic factor?

A) zymogenic cells
B) enteroendocrine cells

C) mucous neck cells
D) parietal cells

parietal cells

119

A fluid secreted into the small intestine during digestion that contains cholesterol, emulsification agents, and phospholipids is ________.

A) intestinal juice
B) gastric juice
C) bile
D) pancreatic juice

bile

120

How are most nutrients absorbed through the mucosa of the intestinal villa?

A) active transport
B) bulk flow

C) facilitated diffusion
D) simple diffusion

active transport

121

Select the correct statement about digestive processes.

A) All commonly ingested substances are significantly absorbed by the mucosa of the stomach.

B) Enterogastrone is a hormone that helps increase gastric motility.

C) Pepsin is an enzyme produced by the stomach for the purpose of starch digestion.

D) Chyme entering the duodenum can decrease gastric motility via the enterogastric reflex.

Chyme entering the duodenum can decrease gastric motility via the enterogastric reflex.

122

The mechanism that establishes the medullary osmotic gradient depends most on the permeability properties of the ________

A) collecting duct
B) glomerular filtration membrane

C) nephron loop
D) distal convoluted tubule

nephron loop

123

An increase in the permeability of the cells of the collecting tubule to water is due to a(n) ________.

A) increase in the production of ADH

B) decrease in the production of ADH

C) increase in the production of aldosterone

D) decrease in the concentration of the blood plasma

increase in the production of ADH

124

The urinary bladder is composed of ________ epithelium.

A) simple squamous
B) pseudostratified columnar

C) stratified squamous
D) transitional

transitional

125

The kidneys are stimulated to produce renin ________.

A) when the specific gravity of urine rises above 1.10

B) when the pH of the urine decreases

C) by a decrease in the blood pressure

D) when the peritubular capillaries are dilated

by a decrease in the blood pressure

126

Which of the choices below is not a function of the urinary system?

A) maintains blood osmolarity

B) helps maintain homeostasis by controlling the composition, volume, and pressure of blood

C) eliminates solid, undigested wastes and excretes carbon dioxide, water, salts, and heat

D) regulates blood glucose levels and produces hormones

eliminates solid, undigested wastes and excretes carbon dioxide, water, salts, and heat

127

The fatty tissue surrounding the kidneys is important because it ________.

A) stabilizes the position of the kidneys by holding them in their normal position

B) ensures adequate energy for the adrenal glands to operate efficiently

C) is necessary as a barrier between the adrenal glands and kidneys

D) produces vitamin D and other chemicals needed by the kidney

stabilizes the position of the kidneys by holding them in their normal position

128

The renal corpuscle is made up of ________.

A) the renal papilla
B) the renal pyramid

C) Bowman's capsule and glomerulus
D) the descending nephron loop

Bowman's capsule and glomerulus

129

The functional and structural unit of the kidneys is the ________.

A) glomerular capsule
B) nephron

C) nephron loop
D) capsular space

nephron

130

The chief force pushing water and solutes out of the blood across the filtration membrane is ________.

A) the ionic electrochemical gradient

B) protein-regulated diffusion

C) the size of the pores in the basement membrane of the capillaries

D) glomerular hydrostatic pressure (glomerular blood pressure)

glomerular hydrostatic pressure (glomerular blood pressure)

131

The mechanism of water reabsorption by the renal tubules is ________.

A) osmosis
B) cotransport with sodium ions

C) filtration
D) active transport

osmosis

132

Alcohol acts as a diuretic because it ________.

A) is not reabsorbed by the tubule cells
B) inhibits the release of ADH

C) increases the rate of glomerular filtration
D) increases secretion of ADH

inhibits the release of ADH

133

A disease caused by inadequate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) by the pituitary gland with symptoms of polyuria is ________.

A) diabetic acidosis
B) coma

C) diabetes mellitus
D) diabetes insipidus

diabetes insipidus

134

Place the following in correct sequence from the formation of a drop of urine to its elimination from the body.

  1. major calyx
  2. minor calyx
  3. nephron
  4. urethra
  5. ureter
  6. collecting duct

A) 2, 1, 3, 6, 5, 4

B) 6, 3, 2, 1, 5, 4

C) 3, 6, 2, 1, 5, 4

D)3, 1, 2, 6, 5, 4

3, 1, 2, 6, 5, 4

135

Small organs associated with lymphatic vessels are termed ________.

A) lymph nodes
B) lymphatics
C) lacteals
D) lymph follicles

lymph nodes

136

Which of the following would not be classified as a lymphatic structure?

A) spleen
B) tonsils

C) pancreas
D) Peyer's patches of the intestine

pancreas

137

Lymph transport involves all but which of the following?

A) milking action of active muscle fibers

B) thorax pressure changes during breathing

C) lymph capillary minivalve action

D) smooth muscle contraction in the lymph capillary walls

smooth muscle contraction in the lymph capillary walls

138

The thymus is most active during ________.

A) old age
B) middle age

C) childhood
D) fetal development

childhood

139

Which lymphatic structure drains lymph from the right upper limb and the right side of the head and thorax?

A) cisterna chyli
B) lumbar trunk

C) right lymphatic duct
D) thoracic duct

right lymphatic duct

140

Which of the following is not a part of the lymphatic system?

A) erythrocytes
B) lymph nodes

C) lymph
D) lymphatic vessels

erythrocytes

141

The lymphatic capillaries are ________.

A) as permeable as blood capillaries
B) less permeable than blood capillaries

C) completely impermeable
D) more permeable than blood capillaries

more permeable than blood capillaries

142

Antibodies that act against a particular foreign substance are released by ________.

A) plasma cells
B) medullary cords

C) T lymphocytes
D) lymph nodes

plasma cells

143

Lymph leaves a lymph node via ________.

A) afferent lymphatic vessels
B) the cortical sinus

C) the subcapsular sinus
D) efferent lymphatic vessels

efferent lymphatic vessels

144

Which cells become immunocompetent due to thymic hormones?

A) lymphocytes
B) monocytes
C) basophils
D) macrophages

lymphocytes

145

Select the correct statement about lymph transport.

A) Lymph transport is faster than that occurring in veins.

B) Lymph transport depends on the movement of adjacent tissues, such as skeletal muscles.

C) Under normal conditions, lymph vessels are very high-pressure conduits.

D) Lymph transport is only necessary when illness causes tissue swelling.

Lymph transport depends on the movement of adjacent tissues, such as skeletal muscles.

146

Select the correct statement about lymphocytes.

A) T cells are the only form of lymphocyte found in lymphoid tissue.

B) T cells are the precursors of B cells.

C) The two main types are T cells and macrophages.

D) B cells produce plasma cells, which secrete antibodies into the blood.

B cells produce plasma cells, which secrete antibodies into the blood.

147

Lymphoid tissue that appears as a swelling of the mucosa in the oral cavity is called a(n) ________.

A.thymus
B) appendix
C) tonsil
D) Peyer's patch

tonsil

148

Which of the following does not contain a mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue?

A) Peyer's patch
B) appendix
C) thymus
D) tonsil

thymus

149

Peyer's patches are found in the ________.

A) jejunum of the small intestine
B) large intestine

C) duodenum of the small intestine
D) ileum of the small intestine

ileum of the small intestine

150

Lymph capillaries are absent in all except which of the following?

A) bone marrow
B) bones and teeth

C) CNS
D) digestive organs

digestive organs

151

Large clusters of lymph nodes occur in all of the following locations except the ________.

A) inguinal region
B) lower extremities

C) axillary region
D) cervical region

lower extremities

152

Digestive tract-associated lymphatic tissue includes all of the following except ________.

A) palatine tonsils
B) islets of Langerhans

C) Peyer's patches
D) lingual tonsils

islets of Langerhans

153

The tonsils located at the base of the tongue are the ________.

A) pharyngeal tonsils
B) lingual tonsils

C) Peyer's tonsils
D) palatine tonsils

lingual tonsils

154

Which of the following is not a function of the lymphatic system?

A) transporting dietary fats
B) draining excess interstitial fluid

C) carrying out immune responses
D) transporting respiratory gases

transporting respiratory gases

155

Which of the following is not a function of lymph nodes?

A) produce lymph fluid and cerebrospinal fluid

B) produce lymphoid cells and house granular WBCs

C) serve as antigen surveillance areas

D) act as lymph filters and activate the immune system

produce lymph fluid and cerebrospinal fluid

156

Which of the following is associated with passive immunity?

A) infusion of weakened viruses

B) passage of IgG antibodies from a pregnant mother to her fetus

C) booster shot of vaccine

D) exposure to an antigen

passage of IgG antibodies from a pregnant mother to her fetus

157

Which of the following is not a type of T cell?

A) regulatory
B) cytotoxic
C) antigenic
D) helper

antigenic

158

B lymphocytes develop immunocompetence in the ________.

A) spleen
B) lymph nodes
C) bone marrow
D) thymus

bone marrow

159

Which of the following is not a function of the inflammatory response?

A) sets the stage for repair processes

B) disposes of cellular debris and pathogens

C) replaces injured tissues with connective tissue

D) prevents the spread of the injurious agent to nearby tissue

replaces injured tissues with connective tissue

160

The redness and heat of an inflamed area are due to a local hyperemia caused by ________.

A) complement production
B) vasodilation

C) phagocyte mobilization
D) vasoconstriction

vasodilation

161

The process whereby neutrophils and other white blood cells are attracted to an inflammatory site is called ________.

A) chemotaxis
B) margination
C) diapedesis
D) phagocytosis

chemotaxis

162

Which of the following cells predominate at the sites of chronic infections?

A) Macrophages
B) Basophils
C) Eosinophils
D) B cells

Macrophages

163

interferons ________.

A) are virus-specific, so that an interferon produced against one virus could not protect cells against another virus

B) are routinely used in nasal sprays for the common cold

C) act by increasing the rate of cell division

D) interfere with viral replication within cells

interfere with viral replication within cells

164

Which of the following is a part of the second line of defense against microorganisms?

A) gastric juice
B) keratin
C) cilia
D) phagocytes

phagocytes

165

Phagocyte mobilization involves ________

A) diapedesis, during which cells line up against the capillary wall

B) mainly neutrophil and macrophage migration into inflamed areas

C) monocytes as the most active phagocyte

D) margination, which is the process of white cell movement through the walls of capillaries into injured tissues

mainly neutrophil and macrophage migration into inflamed areas

166

Fever ________.

A) causes the liver to release large amounts of iron, which seems to inhibit bacterial replication

B) is a higher-than-normal body temperature that is always dangerous

C) production is regulated by chemicals that reset the body's thermostat to a higher setting

D) decreases the metabolic rate of the body to conserve energy

production is regulated by chemicals that reset the body's thermostat to a higher setting

167

The main site of gas exchange is the ________.

A) alveolar sacs
B) alveoli

C) respiratory bronchiole
D) alveolar duct

alveoli

168

The loudness of a person's voice depends on the ________.

A) thickness of vestibular folds

B) force with which air rushes across the vocal folds

C) length of the vocal folds

D) strength of the intrinsic laryngeal muscles

force with which air rushes across the vocal folds

169

Complete the following statement using the choices below. Air moves out of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is ________.

A) greater than the intra-alveolar pressure

B) less than the pressure in the atmosphere

C) equal to the pressure in the atmosphere

D) greater than the pressure in the atmosphere

greater than the pressure in the atmosphere

170

Which of the following maintains the patency (openness) of the trachea?

A) surface tension of water
B) pseudostratified ciliated epithelium

C) C-shaped cartilage rings
D) surfactant production

C-shaped cartilage rings

171

Intrapulmonary pressure is the ________.

A) pressure within the pleural cavity

B) difference between atmospheric pressure and respiratory pressure

C) pressure within the alveoli of the lungs

D) negative pressure in the intrapleural space

pressure within the alveoli of the lungs

172

The relationship between gas pressure and gas volume is described by ________.

A) Henry's law
B) Boyle's law
C) Dalton's law
D) Charles' law

Boyle's law

173

The most powerful respiratory stimulus for breathing in a healthy person is ________.

A) alkalosis
B) increase of carbon dioxide

C) acidosis
D) loss of oxygen in tissues

increase of carbon dioxide

174

Tidal volume is air ________

A) exchanged during normal breathing

B) inhaled after normal inspiration

C) remaining in the lungs after forced expiration

D) forcibly expelled after normal expiration

exchanged during normal breathing

175

Possible causes of hypoxia include ________.

A) too little oxygen in the atmosphere
B) taking several rapid deep breaths

C) getting very cold
D) obstruction of the esophagus

taking several rapid deep breaths

176

Respiratory control centers are located in the ________.

A) midbrain and medulla
B) upper spinal cord and medulla

C) medulla and pons
D) pons and midbrain

medulla and pons

177

The amount of air that can be inspired above the tidal volume is called ________.

A) expiratory capacity
B) reserve air

C) inspiratory reserve
D) vital capacity

inspiratory reserve


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