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1

Neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils are collectively referred to as __________.

granulocytes

2

The process of coating bacteria with serum proteins to promote attachment of phagocytes is called __________.

opsonization

3

Complement components C5 through C9 form plasma membrane channels in cellular microbes referred to as the __________.

membrane attack complex

4

The epidermis ________.

contains protein keratin

5

ID50 for many pathogens is significantly smaller when testing with gnotobiotic animals compared to animals with normal microbiota. This is likely due to ________.



microbial antagonism

6

Which of these structures is not part of the mononuclear phagocytic system?

lymphocytes

7

Which answer is not true for adherence of a phagocyte to a microbe?

Antibody molecules attached to the microbe will limit adherence

8

All of these cells demonstrate phagocytic activity except _______

lymphocytes

9

Activation of which of these complement proteins causes cytolysis?

C9

10

Which of these answers best describes the relationship between humans and most of their skin and intestinal normal microbiota?

commensalism

11

Histamine causes all of the following reactions. Which occurs first?

vasodilation

12

The rise in temperature that causes a fever is due to the hypothalamus responding to ________

interleukin 1

13

________ cells are important in facilitating immune responses against pathogens that enter the body via the digestive system

M

14

The number of regions on an antibody molecule that can bind to an antigen is referred to as the antibody __________.

valence

15

Programmed cell death is referred to as

apoptosis

16

Antigenic stimulation of a particular B cell that results in the production of a large number of plasma and memory cells, all capable of responding to that antigen, is referred to as __________

clonal selection

17

Cytokines that induce migration of leukocytes into areas of infection or tissue damage are known as ___

chemokines

18

The resistance to reinfection with measles virus following recovery from measles infection is called ___

adaptive immunity

19

HIV selectively destroys CD4 cells and as a result, a person with AIDS is susceptible to life-threatening viral infections. Knowing this, you can conclude that

t dependent antigens

20

Cyclosporine is a drug sometimes used to prevent transplant rejection after organ transplant surgery. This drug specifically disrupts cell-mediated immunity by cytotoxic T cells. Which of these events can be predicted based on this information?

Antibody production will not be disrupted in the recipient

21

Cell-mediated immunity in part protects against __

intracellular bacteria and viruses

22

How do NK cells recognize the target cells that they will destroy?

The target cells lack MHC I self-antigens

23

Immunity acquired by transplacental transfer is called ______

naturally acquired passive immunity

24

A new chemical messenger has been discovered that enhances the chemotaxis of macrophages and neutrophils toward sites of infection. It would be specifically classified as a/an ___

chemokine

25

While on safari in Serengeti National Park, Tanzania, your friend ventures away from camp and is bitten by a boomslang snake. The venom will cause hemorrhaging and death within hours. Fortunately, you are prepared and administer artificially acquired passive immunity. With what did you inject your friend

antibodies

26

A patient with Bruton's agammaglobulinemia has decreased immunoglobulin. This means the disease affects _

b cells

27

Haptens can bind to antibody molecules only if the haptens are attached to a carrier molecule

false

28

The process of eliminating potentially self-reactive T cells in the thymus is called clonal selection

false

29

helper T cells are involved in both the humoral and the cellular immune responses

true

30

Macrophages and dendritic cells are the only cells that can present antigen to T cells.

false

31

T cells react to antigens on the surface of APCs only when those antigens are associated with proteins of the major histocompatibility complex

true

32

Which of these molecules or structures is not associated with innate immunity?

antibodies

33

The ID50 for many pathogens is significantly smaller when testing with gnotobiotic animals compared to animals with normal microbiota. This is likely due to

microbial antagonism

34

The respiratory system is protected against harmful microbes by all of the following except ___

lacrimal apparatus

35

All of these statements about sebum are true except

raises pH of skin

36

One remarkable finding on a patient's laboratory workup is a marked eosinophilia. This might be suggestive o

parasitic or allergic rxn

37

Which of these structures is not part of the mononuclear phagocytic system

lymphocytes

38

Which answer is not true for adherence of a phagocyte to a microbe

Antibody molecules attached to the microbe will limit adherence

39

The stage of phagocytosis in which the phagocyte's plasma membrane attaches to the surface of the microbe is called

adherence

40

All of these answers are true of inflammation except ____

many neutrophils can be found at the site of chronic inflammation

41

Activation of the complement cascade ______

can cause the infecting microbe to be killed by lysis

42

Assume you mix red blood cells, antibodies against the red blood cells, and complement in a test tube. What would you expect to see

lysis of RBC

43

All of the following are true of the classical pathway of complement activation except

C3 is the first component to be activated

44

Complement component C3, in the classical pathway, is split by

C2aC4b

45

Interferons ___

host specific but not virus specific

46

A subcutaneous infection resulting from epidermal damage is likely to contain staphylococci

true

47

Complement component C3b acts to increase adherence of phagocytes to microbes

true

48

Which of the following results in comparatively long-lasting immunity

A person survives an infectious disease

49

The resistance to reinfection with measles virus following recovery from measles infection is called

adaptive immunity

50

Cell-mediated immunity in part protects against

intracellular bacteria and viruses

51

For IgG, the antigen binding site is found on the ______

variable region of a heavy chain and the variable region of a light chain

52

Which of the following would be a possible consequence of a disorder that selectively destroys the T regulatory cells in a patient

autoimmune dz

53

Which answer is true for IgA

It picks up the secretory component as it passes through mucosal cells

54

Which of these processes is in the proper sequence

IgE is formed; IgE binds to mast cells and basophils; antigen binds IgE; histamine is released

55

T cytotoxic cells

produce perforins

56

Which of these answers is a potential concern of using T-independent antigens as vaccines

These antigens will be ineffective in producing an immune response in infants

57

Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity

is particularly important for killing microbes that are too large be destroyed by phagocytosis

58

Which answer is true of the anamnestic response

IgG predominates

59

Plasma cells
A. secrete antibodies.
B. function in allergic reactions.
C. directly destroy target cells.
D. suppress immune reactions.
E. activate B cells and other T cells.

secrete antibodies

60

The monomer subunit of immunoglobulin molecules has all the following, except
A. two identical heavy polypeptide chains.
B. two identical light polypeptide chains.
C. disulfide bonds between polypeptide chains.
D. four antigen binding sites.
E. a variable and constant region on each polypeptide chain.

4 antigen binding sites

61

The molecular fragment on an antigen molecule that a lymphocyte recognizes and responds to is
called a/an
A. epitope.
B. hapten.
C. antigen binding site.
D. variable region.
E. None of the choices are correct.

epitope.

62

Small foreign molecules that are too small by themselves to elicit an immune response are termed
A. antigenic determinant.
B. hapten.
C. antigen binding site.
D. variable region.
E. None of the choices are correct

hapten

63

Superantigens are
A. body tissues that the immune system mistakes as foreign.
B. cell markers found in some member of a species but not in other members.
C. bacterial toxins that activate T cells at a 100 times greater rate than other antigens.
D. those that evoke allergic reactions.
E. None of the choices are correct.

bacterial toxins that activate T cells at a 100 times greater rate than other antigens.

64

Which process involves antibodies covering surface receptors on a virus or toxin molecule thereby
disrupting their activity?
A. Neutralization
B. Opsonization
C. Complement fixation
D. Agglutination
E. Anamnestic response

neutralization

65

Which process involves antibodies coating microorganisms in order to facilitate phagocytosis?
A. Neutralization
B. Opsonization
C. Complement fixation
D. Agglutination
E. Anamnestic response

opsonization

66

Which process involves a more rapid synthesis and greatly increased titer of antibody when the
immune system is subsequently exposed to the same antigen?
A. Neutralization
B. Opsonization
C. Complement fixation
D. Agglutination
E. Anamnestic response

Anamnestic response



67

The immunoglobulin class that has a dimer form found in mucus, saliva, colostrum, and other body
secretions is
A. IgA.
B. IgD.
C. IgE.
D. IgG.
E. IgM.

IgA

68

The immunoglobulin class that is the only one capable of crossing the placenta is
A. IgA.
B. IgD.
C. IgE.
D. IgG.
E. IgM.

IgG

69

The immunoglobulin class that has an Fc region that binds to receptors on basophils and mast cells
is
A. IgA.
B. IgD.
C. IgE.
D. IgG
E. IgM.

IgE

70

All of the following are characteristics of IgM, except
A. it has 10 antigen binding sites.
B. it contains a central J chain.
C. it is the first class synthesized by a plasma cell.
D. it can fix complement.
E. it is a dimer.

its a dimer

71

Which immunoglobulin class/es can fix complement?
A. IgM only
B. IgG only
C. IgD only
D. IgM and IgG
E. IgE and IgA

IgM, IgG

72

The immunoglobulin/s found on the surface of B cells is/are
A. IgM only.
B. IgG only.
C. IgD only.
D. IgM and IgG.
E. IgE and IgA.

IgD

73

When antiserum is subjected to electrophoresis, the gamma globulin band contains mostly
A. IgM.
B. IgA.
C. IgD.
D. IgE.
E. IgG.

IgG

74

The most significant cells in graft rejection are
A. helper T cells.
B. suppressor T cells.
C. cytotoxic T cells.
D. B cells.
E. natural killer (NK) cells.

cytotoxic t cells

75

Which are the first to attack cancer cells and virus-infected cells?
A. helper T cells
B. suppressor T cells
C. cytotoxic T cells
D. delayed hypersensitivity T cells
E. natural killer (NK) cells

NK

76

Monoclonal antibodies
A. originate from a single B cell clone.
B. have a single specificity for antigen.
C. are secreted by hybridomas.
D. are used in immunology lab tests and cancer therapy.
E. All of the choices are correct.

all choises correct

77

Cytotoxic T cells
A. stimulate B cell proliferation.
B. lack specificity for a target cell.
C. secrete granzymes and perforins that damage target cells.
D. secrete interleukin-2 to stimulate B and T cells.
E. All of the choices are correct

secrete granzymes and perforins that damage target cells.

78

An example of artificial passive immunity would be
A. chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity.
B. chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox.
C. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.
D. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.
E. None of the choices are correct

giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.



79

An example of natural passive immunity would be
A. chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity.
B. chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox.
C. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.
D. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.
E. None of the choices are correc

a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.



80

An example of artificial active immunity would be
A. chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity.
B. chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox.
C. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.
D. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.
E. None of the choices are correct.

chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox.

81

Which type of cell is severely depressed in AIDS patients?
A. Cytotoxic T cells
B. Helper T cells
C. B cells
D. Plasma cells
E. Suppressor T cells

helper t cells

82

In the primary response to an antigen, the first class of antibody to be secreted is
A. IgD.
B. IgE.
C. IgG.
D. IgM.
E. IgA.

IgM

83

In the secondary response to an antigen, the predominant antibody is
A. IgD.
B. IgE.
C. IgG.
D. IgM.
E. IgA

IgG

84

All of the following characterize the secondary response to an antigen except
A. a higher titer of antibody is produced than the primary response.
B. a longer persistence of antibody than with the primary response.
C. a quicker rate of antibody synthesis than the primary response.
D. it is mostly IgM antibodies that are produced.
E. it is also known as the anamnestic response.

it is mostly IgM antibodies that are produced.



85

Which antibody confers the most important specific local immunity to enteric, respiratory, and
genitourinary pathogens?
A. IgD
B. IgE
C. IgG
D. IgM
E. IgA

IgA

86

The process of clonal deletion is designed to
A. destroy clones of lymphocytes able to react to self molecules.
B. slow down the primary immune response to an antigen.
C. slow down the secondary immune response to an antigen.
D. limit the number of lymphocyte clones an individual has in order to make the system more
efficient.
E. slow down the immune system in the elderly.

destroy clones of lymphocytes able to react to self molecules.

87

Sam works in construction and stepped on a sharp nail. He can't remember the last time he had a
tetanus shot. What type of immunity is the most important for him to receive?
A. Natural active immunity
B. Artificial passive immunity
C. Natural passive immunity
D. Artificial active immunity
E. None of the choices will help him

artificial passive immunity

88

Cody is 4 months old and is given an MMR injection by his pediatrician as part of the routine
immunization schedule. What type of immunity is this?
A. Natural active immunity
B. Artificial passive immunity
C. Natural passive immunity
D. Artificial active immunity
E. None of the choices will protect him

artificial active immunity

89

Edward Jenner's work involved
A. inoculation of dried pus from smallpox pustules into a person to stimulate immunity.
B. development of passive immunotherapy.
C. development of an immunization to protect people against cowpox.
D.
immunization using a related, less pathogenic organism to give protection against a more
pathogenic one.
E. All of the choices are correct

immunization using a related, less pathogenic organism to give protection against a more
pathogenic one.

90

Immunotherapy is the
A. use of antitoxins.
B. use of immune serum globulin.
C. conferring of passive immunity.
D. administering of preformed antibodies.
E. All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

91

High titers of specific antibodies are components of
A. specific immune globulin (SIG).
B. gamma globulin.
C. immune serum globulin (ISG).
D. attenuated vaccines.
E. toxoids.

specific immune globulin (SIG)



92

Toxoids
A. contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules.
B. are always genetically engineered.
C. contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses.
D. confer passive immunity.
E. All of the choices are correct

contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules.



93

Antitoxins
A. contain antibodies to neutralize specific toxin.
B. use Vaccinia virus with genetic material of bacterial toxins.
C. contain purified, chemically denatured bacterial exotoxin.
D. include capsule material against the pneumococcus and meningococcus.

contain antibodies to neutralize specific toxin.



94

Which sequence of events is correct for a specific immune response?
A. Lymphocyte development, presentation of antigens, antibody production, challenge of B cells.
B. Lymphocyte development, challenge of B cells, antibody production, presentation of antigens.
C. Lymphocyte development, presentation of antigens, B cell challenge, antibody production.
D. Antibody production, lymphocyte production, B cell challenge, presentation of antigens.

Lymphocyte development, presentation of antigens, B cell challenge, antibody production.



95

Which kind of T cell synthesizes perforins and granzymes to destroy bacteria, viral infected cells, and
cancer cells?
A. TC
B. TH
C. CD4
D. MHC

TC

96

_ is the most abundant class of antibodies in serum.

IgG

97

the function of the "ciliary escalator" is to

A)

Kill microorganisms.

B)

Remove microorganisms from body cavities.

C)

Remove microorganisms from the lower respiratory tract.

D)

All of the above.

Remove microorganisms from the lower respiratory tract.

98

What type of immunity results from vaccination?

A)

Innate immunity

B)

Naturally acquired active immunity

C)

Naturally acquired passive immunity

D)

Artificially acquired active immunity

E)

Artificially acquired passive immunity

Artificially acquired active immunity

99

Which of the following is involved in resistance to parasitic helminths?

A)

Basophil

B)

Eosinophil

C)

Lymphocyte

D)

Monocyte

E)

Neutrophil

Eosinophil

100

The best definition of antibody is

A protein made in response to an antigen that can combine with that antigen.

101

All of the following are true for type I (anaphylactic) hypersensitivity reactions except:

A)

IgG and IgM antibodies are involved.

B)

The reactions may be localized or systemic.

C)

Examples may include hay fever, asthma, and bee sting allergies.

D)

The reactions often occur within minutes of exposure to the allergen.

E)

Mediators of the reactions include histamines, leukotrienes, and prostaglandins.

IgG and IgM antibodies are involved.

102

Neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils are collectively referred to as_____________________.

granulocytes

103

during the primary response to an antigen, the first class of antibody produced is the _______________class.

IgM

104

A loss of self-tolerance results in _____________________________disease

autoimmune

105

Which of the following is involved in resistance to parasitic helminths?

eosinophils

106

Which statement is true of endotoxins?

they are released upon cell lysis


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