A&P 2 Semester study guide for Final

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Extra study material for your A&P 2 Final! Based from past quizzes and notes... Blood Cardiovascular Anatomy and Physiology Respiration Anatomy and Physiology Digestion Anatomy and Physiology Urinary Lymphatic System and Immune System Male and Female Reproduction Development More info will be added later
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1

A person with no antibodies in the blood plasma would have which type blood?

Type AB

2

A person with only antibody B in his or her plasma would have which blood type?

Type A

3

Which of the following is not true of hemoglobin?

It is composed of four heme molecules joined to one globin molecule.

4

This substance dissolves blood clots.

Plasmin

5

Which of the following cell types has the main function of carrying oxygen?

Erythrocyte

6

What substance does not assist in the formation of a blood clot?

Plasmin

7

A normal adult red blood cell count ranges from?

4.8 to 5.5 million/cubic mm.

8

What substance involved in the process of blood clot formation is not made by the liver?

Vitamin K

9

Which of the following Rh-factor combinations could cause agglutination of an infant’s red blood cells?

Mother–, father+, infant+

10

A person with no antigens on the red blood cell would have which blood type?

Type O

11

Which characteristic of blood makes it especially effective in temperature regulation?

High specific heat capacity

12

Blood volume per kilogram of body weight varies inversely with

body fat.

13

A hematocrit value of 42% would be?

The average for a woman.

14

Under the microscope, erythrocytes appear as?

biconcave disks without nuclei.

15

Which is not an end product of the breakdown of hemoglobin?

Free oxygen

16

Which of the following is an anticoagulant?

Heparin

17

What part of the hemoglobin molecule combines with carbon dioxide?

Globin

18

Which mature cell has no nucleus, mitochondria, or ribosomes?

Erythrocyte

19

If you give a “unit” of blood in a blood drive and you are an average-sized adult, you have given about what percent of your blood?

10%

20

Calcium is used in the clotting process during?

The formation of thrombin.

21

Thrombocytes are used for?

Blood Clotting

22

In each red blood cell, there are about this many molecules of hemoglobin.

200 to 300 million

23

Christopher, a 2-month-old infant, has a bluish tinge to his skin. Upon listening to the infant’s chest, the physician became concerned about a leakage of blood between the right and left atria. What might have caused this problem and what is the treatment?

The foramen ovale may not be closed, causing backflow of blood into the lungs. The physician will reexamine the infant frequently because the foramen ovale may take as long as 9 months to heal.

24

Which of the following is not true of the atria?

They are the same structure as the auricle.

25

If the AV node were forced to assume pacemaker activity, what would be the resulting pulse rate?

40 to 60 beats per minute

26

Which of the following is true of the conduction system of the heart?

It is made of cardiac muscle.

27

A blood clot in the first vessel branching from the aortic arch would affect the?

right side of the head and neck and the right arm.

28

The Fick formula is used for determining:

cardiac output.

29

If the chordae tendineae in the right side of the heart were damaged, it might cause blood to leak into the:

right atrium during heart contraction.

30

How would relocating a vein for the purpose of bypassing a partial blockage in the coronary arteries support a better functioning heart?

It would construct detours around blocked coronary arteries and return oxygen-rich blood flow to the coronary arteries.

31

The greatest drop in blood pressure occurs across the?

arterioles.

32

The thickest layer of tissue in the heart wall is the?

myocardium.

33

The order of blood flow through the vessels is?

arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins.

34

In fetal circulation, the ductus venosus?

bypasses the liver.

35

Respectively, the right and left atrioventricular valves are also known as:

tricuspid, mitral.

36

Which of the following factors would cause fluid to leave the blood vessel at the arterial end of the capillary?

High hydrostatic pressure of the blood

37

All arteries of the systemic circulation branch from the?

aorta.

38

Which of the following vessels carries blood from the lungs to the heart?

Pulmonary vein

39

All of the following will increase heart rate except:

stimulation of cold receptors in the skin.

40

The palmar arches are branches of the:

radial and ulnar arteries.

41

The pulmonary arteries carry blood to the?

lungs.

42

Which of the following act as blood reservoirs?

Veins

43

Why is the anatomy of the circle of Willis an advantageous anatomical configuration?

It serves an important protective function by providing detour routes for blood to travel in the event of obstruction of a main artery.

44

The QRS complex represents?

repolarization of the atria and depolarization of the ventricles.

45

Minute volume is equal to the?

pressure gradient divided by the resistance.

46

In the cardiac cycle, the R wave is recorded on an ECG during:

isovolumetric contraction.

47

Which describes the role of surfactant in the respiratory system?

Surfactant helps reduce surface tension within the alveoli, thus preventing each alveolus from collapsing as air moves in and out during respiration.

48

The upper respiratory tract includes all of the following structures except the?

trachea.

49

Normal, quiet breathing is known as?

eupnea.

50

Which pair of tonsils is located in the nasopharynx?

Pharyngeal tonsils

51

The smallest branches of the bronchial tree are?

bronchioles.

52

Which of the following is not a true statement?

Raising the ribs decreases the depth and width of the thorax.

53

The apneustic center is located in what part of the nervous system?

Pons

54

By the time the blood leaves the lung capillaries to return to the heart, what percentage of the blood’s hemoglobin has united with oxygen?

97%

55

For purposes of study, the respiratory system can be divided into two parts?

Upper respiratory tract and lower respiratory tract

56

The respiratory portion of the nasal passage is lined with a mucous membrane made up of?

pseudostratified columnar epithelium.

57

If anything decreases alveolar PO2, how does that affect the alveolar-blood oxygen pressure gradient?

Anything that decreases alveolar PO2 tends to decrease the alveolar-blood oxygen pressure gradient and, therefore, tends to decrease the amount of oxygen entering the blood.

58

The small, leaf-shaped cartilage behind the tongue and hyoid bone is the?

epiglottis.

59

Which of the following is true of the cribriform plate?

It separates the nasal and cranial cavities.

60

Which pressure is greatest?

Intraalveolar pressure after expiration

61

Which of the following is not a means of transporting oxygen in the blood?

Combined with the bicarbonate ion (HCO3–)

62

Which of these is not an opening in the pharynx?

Trachea

63

Which of the following is not lined with a ciliated mucous membrane?

Vestibule

64

Each hemoglobin molecule can carry how many oxygen molecules?

Four

65

Internal respiration can be defined as?

he exchange of gases between the blood capillaries and the tissues cells.

66

The function of the vibrissae in the vestibule is to?

provide an initial “filter” to screen particulate matter from air that is entering the system.

67

Vital capacity is defined as the?

maximum volume of air that can be moved into and out of the lungs during forced respiration.

68

What aspects of the structure of lung tissue make efficient gas exchange possible?

The enormous surface area and the respiratory membrane, where the very thin-walled alveoli and equally thin-walled pulmonary capillaries make possible extremely rapid diffusion of gases between alveolar air and pulmonary capillary blood

69

Which of the following combinations in arterial blood could cause an increase in the respiratory rate?

Increased PCO2, decreased arterial pressure, decreased pH, decreased PO2

70

Which statement explains what happens to toxic substances after detoxification by liver cells?

They are changed into nontoxic compounds by a series of chemical reactions.

71

Polysaccharides are hydrolyzed into disaccharides by enzymes known as?

amylase.

72

Bile salts aid in the absorption of?

Fats

73

The disaccharide maltose is made up of which two saccharide units?

Glucose and glucose

74

The lamina propria is found in which level of the GI wall?

Mucosa

75

The greatest proportion of the tooth shell consists of?

dentin.

76

Which monosaccharide is found in all three of the most common disaccharides?

Glucose

77

Gastric juice contains all the following substances except?

enterokinase.

78

Surgical removal of the gallbladder is referred to as?

cholecystectomy.

79

Why can it be said that absorption is the reason for digestion?

Even though digestion includes the processes of mechanical and chemical breakdown of ingested food, the optimum goal of digestion is to absorb nutrients.

80

Which of the following structures is not used to block an opening during swallowing?

Glottis

81

The end product of amylase digestion is?

Maltose

82

Pancreatic juice contains all the following substances except?

pepsinogen.

83

Saliva contains all of the following substances except?

intrinsic factor.

84

In the stomach, hydrochloric acid is secreted by the?

parietal cells.

85

Which of the following is not a function of the stomach?

It begins the absorption of proteins.

86

Which of the following is not a function of the liver?

Answer: Stores bile

The liver makes bile the gallbladder stores bile.

87

Which of the following organs is classified as a dual gland (both exocrine and endocrine)?

Pancreas

88

The purpose of peristalsis is to?

propel food forward along the GI tract.

89

Which of the following is not a division of the stomach?

Rugae

90

Which of the following is not true of enzymes?

They change chemically and are in the end products of the reaction.

91

The movement of molecules out of the tubules and into the peritubular blood defines?

reabsorption.

92

Which blood vessel drains the vasa recta?

Interlobular vein

93

The substance most often measured to determine normal kidney function is:

creatinine.

94

If the glomerular hydrostatic pressure = 67 mm Hg, the glomerular osmotic pressure = 28 mm Hg, the capsular hydrostatic pressure = 17 mm Hg, and the capsular osmotic pressure = 0 mm Hg, the effective filtration pressure (EFP) would be?

22 mm Hg.

95

Within the male urethra, how is urine prevented from mixing with semen during ejaculation?

Urine is prevented from mixing with semen during ejaculation by a reflex closure of sphincter muscles guarding the bladder opening.

96

Filtrate in which part of the nephron tubule has the highest osmolality?

Descending loop of Henle

97

Which of the following substances is released by the juxtaglomerular cells?

Renin

98

Which of the following is not true of sodium chloride (NaCl)?

It has the same type of bonds as glucose.

99

The subfornical organ is located in what part of the central nervous system?

Roof of the third ventricle of the brain

100

Which large molecules are retained by the selectively permeable cell membrane?

Proteins

101

The portion of the nephron tubule that is essentially always impermeable to water is the?

ascending loop of Henle.

102

When the effective filtration pressure equals zero?

no net transfer of water occurs between blood and interstitial fluid.

103

If two electrodes charged with a weak current were placed in a solution of NaCl, the negative electrode would attract the

Sodium ion.

104

Which of the following is not a method used for parenteral administration?

By mouth

105

In which parts of the nephron do all of the following functions occur: passive reabsorption, active reabsorption, passive secretion, and active secretion?

Collecting duct and the distal tubule

106

he percentage of water in urine is approximately?

95%

107

In the average bladder, what amount of urine would cause a moderately distended sensation and the desire to void?

250 ml

108

If two electrodes charged with a weak current were placed in a solution of NaCl, the positive electrode would attract?

chloride ions.

109

Which best explains why a person who has uncontrolled diabetes mellitus voids a large amount of urine?

Excess glucose “spills over” into urine, thereby increasing the solute concentration of urine (and decreasing the solute concentration of plasma), which in turn leads to diuresis.

110

Which of the following is not a cause of hypervolemia?

Ascites

111

If a solution of sodium (Na+, atomic weight = 23) and a solution of calcium (Ca2+, atomic weight = 40) had equal mg%, what would be the mEq/L of each?

The mEq/L of calcium would be about twice that of sodium.

112

If the Tmax for glucose in the nephron was 300 mg/100 ml and a person had a blood glucose level of 380 mg/100 ml, there would be?

80 mg/100 ml of glucose in the urine.

113

Which is the best explanation of how a white blood cell ingests and destroys a microorganism?

The white blood cell engulfs the microorganism and then lysosomal enzymes destroy it.

114

The high concentration of protein in the thoracic duct results from the protein-rich lymph that drains from the:

Liver

115

The type of immune mechanism that provides a general defense by acting against anything recognized as “not self” is called:

nonspecific immunity.

116

A type of blood cell produced by lymph nodes is called an?

monocyte.

117

Which of the following is not a lymph organ?

Pancreas

118

How do the reticuloendothelial cells compare to white blood cells as a defense against infection?

Reticuloendothelial cells (macrophages) lining the spleen remove microorganisms from the blood and destroy them by phagocytosis in a fashion similar to that of white blood cells.

119

Which substance can destroy pathogens by lowering the pH to a level at which they cannot function?

Hydrochloric acid

120

Why is having an understanding of the lymphatic drainage of the breast important in formulating the diagnosis and treatment of breast cancer?

A single cell of a primary cancer tumor can spread to other areas of the body through the lymphatic system and cause metastasis.

121

The antibody associated with allergic reaction is?

IgE

122

Which is a logical conclusion that could be made regarding a decrease in blood protein in the bloodstream and viscosity of blood?

A decrease in blood protein concentration tends to decrease blood viscosity.

123

The antibody normally constituting the highest percentage of antibodies in the blood is:

IgG

124

Which would you predict would occur if a disease blocked the flow of lymph?

The liver might become enlarged or lymphedema may occur.

125

____ of the lymph from the breast enters the lymph nodes of the axillary region.

More than 85%

126

Which is the most accurate outline of the primary principle of circulation as related to Newton’s first and second laws of motion?

The first law states that a fluid does not flow when the pressure is the same in all parts of it. The second law states that a fluid flows only when the pressure is higher in one area than in another and it flows always from the higher pressure area toward the lower pressure area.

127

When a patient starts to have rejection problems with a transplanted organ, the problems are usually caused by:

human leukocyte antigens (HALs).

128

Relative to the rest of the body, the thymus is largest at:

20 years of age.

129

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) invades and kills ____ first.

helper T cells

130

An immunoglobulin, or antibody molecule, consists of?

Two heavy and two light polypeptide chains.

131

The size of lymph nodes varies from?

1 mm to more than 20 mm in diameter

132

The part of the antibody that combines with the antigen is the?

variable region.

133

Which of the following is not part of the lymphatic system?

Thyroid

134

Which of the following is not true of lymph nodes?

They have one afferent vessel.

135

Which of the following does not describe phagocytosis?

A major component of the body’s third line of defense

136

The medulla of the ovary contains?

blood vessels and lymphatics

137

The follicular phase of the menstrual cycle is the same as the?

postmenstrual phase.

138

Some home pregnancy tests measure the amount of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in a woman’s urine. What structure produces hCG and why?

hCG is produced by placental tissue early in pregnancy to maintain estrogen and progesterone secretion by the corpus luteum, preventing menstruation and promoting maintenance of the uterine lining

139

As part of the maturation process, sperm will stay in the epididymis for?

1 to 3 weeks

140

The main factor determining male fertility is the:

number of sperm ejaculated.

141

Which of the following do not develop from granulosa cells?

Tunica albuginea

142

The temperature required for sperm production is about?

3 degrees below normal body temperature.

143

Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases is caused by a virus?

Hepatitis

144

What reproductive duct is divided into the head, body, and tail?

Epididymis

145

The function of Reinke crystalloids in the Leydig cells is?

uncertain at this time.

146

Each of the following is a duct in the male reproductive system except:

inguinal canal.

147

Fertilization of an ovum most often occurs in the:

fallopian tube.

148

The layer that is incomplete because it covers none of the cervix and only part of the body is called the?

parietal peritoneum.

149

Which of the following statements is not true about the mechanism controlling lactation?

Prolactin stimulates the ejection of milk into the ducts of the mammary glands.

150

The opening of the urethra at the tip of the glans is called the?

external urinary meatus.

151

At puberty, the reproductive hormones stimulate the organs of the reproductive tract. Which statement best describe what happens to the ovaries at this time?

The ovaries become functional and produce mature ova one at a time.

152

Functional sterility results when the sperm count per milliliter falls below which number?

25 Million

153

Which of the following ligaments does not assist in holding the ovaries in place?

Round ligament

154

The number of spermatids formed by one primary spermatocyte is?

4

155

Normally, capacitation occurs in sperm?

after they have been introduced into the female’s vagina.

156

Sertoli cells is another name for?

sustentacular cells.

157

Testosterone:

helps regulate metabolism and stimulates protein anabolism.

158

Which of the following is not a function of the Sertoli cells?

They produce testosterone.

159

What reproductive duct is a short tube about 1 cm long that passes through the prostate gland to terminate in the urethra?

Ejaculatory duct

160

Birth weight generally doubles during the first?

4 months and then triples by 1 year.

161

A condition in which the placenta separates from the uterine wall is called?

abruptio placentae.

162

The normal phenomenon of “crossing over” occurs?

during meiosis I.

163

Which of the following conditions associated with the eye does not directly involve the lens?

Glaucoma

164

The structure known as the “bag of waters” is the?

amniotic cavity.

165

Fraternal twins have?

have two placentas.

166

In the female reproductive system, which of the following does not assist the sperm in reaching the egg?

Polar bodies produced by the egg

167

The condition caused by buildup of fatty deposits in blood vessel walls is?

atherosclerosis.

168

Which of the following is not a function of the placenta?

Barrier to alcohol

169

The sequence of early development of the fetus is?

zygote, morula, and blastocyst.

170

Fertilization takes place in the?

uterine tube.

171

In the human, the diploid number of chromosomes is?

46

172

The solid mass of cells formed when the zygote begins to divide is called the?

morula.

173

If the process of oogenesis goes to completion, how many polar bodies will be produced?

3

174

The early embryo has stem cells referred to as?

totipotent.

175

The second stage of labor is the?

period from the time of maximal cervical dilation until the baby exits through the vagina.

176

Only about what percent of the sperm deposited in the female reproductive tract actually reach the ovum?

Less than 0.1%

177

After puberty, about how many primary oocytes resume meioses each month?

1,000

178

The term used for the fertilized ovum is?

zygote.

179

Which of the following hormones is not produced by the placenta?

FSH

180

Which of the following structures is not formed by the ectoderm?

Dermis of the skin

181

A nonfunctioning yolk sac could hinder the fetus in

producing blood cells.

182

In a tube of centrifuged blood, the order of substances from top to bottom would be?

plasma, buffy coat, red blood cells.

183

If you give a “unit” of blood in a blood drive and you are an average-sized adult, you have given about what percent of your blood?

10%

184

A person with no antibodies in the blood plasma would have which blood type?

Type AB

185

In the formation of blood cells, the megakaryocyte ultimately forms?

platelets.

186

If the tidal volume were 600 ml, the alveolar ventilation would be about?

400 ml

187

Air inhaled through the mouth would be?

dirtier than air inhaled through the nose.

188

Each hemoglobin molecule can carry how many carbon dioxide molecules?

Four

189

n the right lung, the superior and middle lobes are separated by the?

horizontal fissure.

190

Which gas law deals with the solubility of gases in solution?

Henry

191

Which of the following is not a subdivision of the thoracic cavity?

Medial pleural division

192

Which of the following is not a true statement?

Raising the ribs decreases the depth and width of the thorax.

193

A drop in the body’s production of carbonic anhydrase would?

hinder the formation of carbonic acid.

194

The eustachian tube connects the middle ear with the?

nasopharynx.

195

Which statement differentiates between the intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the larynx, and explains which one moves the larynx?

Intrinsic muscles have both their origin and insertion on the larynx, whereas extrinsic muscles insert on the larynx but have their origin on some other structure; contraction of the extrinsic muscles actually moves or displaces the larynx as a whole.

196

Normal, quiet breathing is known as?

eupnea.

197

Which of the following combinations in arterial blood could cause an increase in the respiratory rate?

Increased PCO2, decreased arterial pressure, decreased pH, decreased PO2

198

Which of the following is not part of the vasomotor control mechanism?

Sympathetic stimulation of the heart to increase cardiac output

199

The period of time during which blood is moved out of the atria and into the ventricles is called?

atrial systole.

200

The pulse in the wrist is felt over which artery?

Radial

201

Which part of the heart conduction system is referred to as the pacemaker?

Sinoatrial node

202

What is the functional significance of large areas of cardiac muscle being electrically coupled to form a single functional syncytium?

Because they form a syncytium, muscle cells can pass an action potential along a large area or the heart wall, stimulating contraction in each muscle fiber of the syncytium.

203

When you take a blood pressure reading, the first sound that you hear (top reading) is the?

systolic sound, indicating the contraction of the ventricles.

204

Which of the following is a stretching of the artery walls?

Aneurysm

205

Which of the following is not true of the myocardium?

The muscle cells can quickly summate contractions to produce tetanus.

206

he pulse in the neck is felt over which artery?

Common carotid

207

On an ECG, the T wave represents?

repolarization of the ventricles.

208

Which of the following events will tend to cause a decrease in blood viscosity?

Marked anemia

209

Which of the following is not true of the baroreceptors?

They are sensitive to changes in the oxygen content of the blood.

210

The greatest drop in blood pressure occurs across the?

arterioles.

211

The internal layer of tissue in the heart is the?

endocardium.

212

Which of the following vessels carries blood from the lungs to the heart?

Pulmonary vein

213

An end product of the action of the enzyme phospholipase is?

A free fatty acid.

214

Which of the following salivary glands produces only a mucus type of saliva?

Sublinguals

215

The major final product that results from the digestion of carbohydrates is?

Glucose

216

Phagocytic cells lining liver sinusoids are called?

Kupffer cells

217

The hormone that stimulates the gallbladder to release bile is?

cholecystokinin-pancreozymin.

218

Which of the following structures is not used to block an opening during swallowing?

Glottis

219

The hormone glucagon is produced by?

alpha cells.

220

In the stomach, hydrochloric acid is secreted by the?

parietal cells.

221

Rotavirus can cause what life-threatening condition in infants?

Diarrhea

222

Which structure helps anchor the tongue to the floor of the mouth?

The frenulum

223

Bile salts aid in the absorption of?

Fats

224

The right angle formed by the transverse colon and the descending colon is called the?

splenic flexure.

225

Pancreatic juice contains all the following substances except?

pepsinogen.

226

Hydrochloric acid is released from cells in the?

stomach.


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