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1

Vector-borne transmission of an infectious organism occurs via...

animals or insects

2

Which of the following statements regarding the different stages of the grieving process is correct?

The stages of the grieving process may occur simultaneously

3

While providing care to a patient, blood got onto the ambulance stretcher. Because the stretcher was not properly cleaned afterward, a virus was transmitted to another emergency medical technician several days later. Which route of transmission does this scenario describe?

indirect contact

4

The EMT's first priority is..

personal safety

5

Which of the following is an effective stress management strategy?

developing a social network outside of EMS

6

The simplest, yet most effective method of preventing the spread of an infectious disease to...

wash your hands in between patient contacts

7

**To help protect patients, EMS agencies are required to have...

a privacy officer to answer questions

8

Which of the following general statements regarding consent is correct?

a patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse to be treated

9

After assessing a patient's blood glucose level, you accidentally stick yourself with the contaminated lancet. You should...

Report the incident to your supervisor after the call

10

Which of the following statements regarding HIV is correct?

There is no vaccine against HIV infection

11

The MOST serious consequence of drug or alcohol abuse among EMS personnel is..

substandard or inappropriate patient care

12

At the scene of an automobile crash, a utility pole has been broken and power lines are lying across the car. The patients inside the car are concisous. You should...

mark off a danger zone around the downed lines

13

***Which type of consent is involved when a 39 year old mentally competent female with a severe headache asks you to take her to the hospital?

expressed

14

You arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle-versus-pedestrian accident. The patient, a 13 year old male, is unconscious and has multiple injuries. As you are treating the child, a law enforcement officer advises you that the child's parents will be at the scene in approximately 15 minutes. What should you do?

Transport the child immediately and have the parents meet you at the hospital

15

When is forcible restraint permitted?

when the patient poses a significant threat to self or others

16

***In which of the following circumstances can the EMT legally release confidential patient information?

the patient is competent and signs a release form

17

Which aspect of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPPA) MOST affects EMS personnel?

protecting the patient privacy

18

You respond to the home of a 59-year old man who is unconscious; has slow, shallow breathing; and has a weak pulse. The family states that the patient has terminal brain cancer and does not wish to be resuscitated. They further state that there is a DNR order for this patient, but they are unable to locate it. You should:

begin treatment and contact medical control as needed

19

You and your partner arrive at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash. The driver, a young male, is severely entrapped in his car. He has an open head injury and massive facial trauma. He is unresponsive, is not breathing, and does not have a palpable carotid pulse. You should:

have your partner check for a pulse to confirm that the patient is deceased

20

The EMT's scope of practice within his or her local response area is defined by the:

medical director

21

Effective therapeutic communication skills require...

verbal and nonverbal communication techniques

22

Which of the following types of questions allow for the most detailed response?

open-ended questions

23

***Which of the following will help improve radio communications?

Wait 1 second after pressing the transmit button before speaking

24

During your assessment of a 20 year old man with a severe headache and nausea, you ask him when his headache began, but he does not answer your question immediately. You should:

allow him time to think about the question and respond to it

25

When you are communicating with an older patient, it is important to remember that:

most older people think clearly and are capable of answering questions

26

Communicating with patients who are deaf or hard-of-hearing can be facilitated by doing all of the following EXCEPT:

elevating the tone of your voice and exaggerating word pronunciation

27

As you are wheeling your patient through the emergency department doors, you receive another call for a major motor vehicle crash. You should:

Respond only after giving a verbal patient report to a nurse or physician

28

Which of the following statements is NOT appropriate to document in the narrative section of a PCR?

General impression revealed that the patient was intoxicated

29

Which of the following statements regarding a patient refusal is correct?

a mentally competent adult has the legal right to refuse EMS care and transport

30

The suffix -pathy means:

disease

31

The root melan/o means:

Chondro in the word chondritis:

the meaning around can have which of the following prefixes?

Myo is the word myocarditis means:

which of the following suffixes mean pertaining to?

Which of the following suffixes means two?

Gastro in the word gastroenteritis means:

A 5 year old boy has fallen and has a severe deformity of the forearm near the wrist. He has possible sustained a fracture of the ____forearm.

The topographic term used to describe the location of body parts that are closer toward the midline of the body is...

black

cartilage

Peri and circum-

muscle

-al and -ic

dipl- and bi-

stomach

distal

medial

32

The ___ is a muscular dome that forms the inferior boundary of the thorax, separating the thorax from the abdomen.

diaphragm

33

Bile is produced by the liver and concentrated and stored in the:

gallbladder

34

The ___is made of the maxilla and zygoma, as well as the frontal bone of the cranium.

orbit

35

The brain connects to the spinal cord through a large opening at t he base of the skull called the:

foramen magnum

36

Which of the following structures does NOT contain smooth muscle?

skeletal system

37

A by-product of involuntary muscle contraction and relaxation is...

heat

38

If the patient's chest barely moves during inhalation, even if the patient's respiratory rate is normal you should suspect that:

a minute volume is decreased

39

***What happens when blood volume is lost from the body?

the arteries contract to increase the blood pressure

40

***A patient has a blood pressure of 130/70 mm Hg. The "130" in this measurement represents:

ventricular contraction

41

Which of the following is NOT a function of the skin?

metabolic coordination

42

The respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute in an infant is___

normal

43

The areas of the infant's skull that have not yet fused together are called___

fontanelles

44

Children of which age group are considered toddlers?

1-3 years

45

A normal systolic blood pressure for a 30 year old is between:

90 and 140 mm Hg

46

What is the normal respiratory rate for an adult?

12-20 breaths/min

47

***Atherosclerosis is defined as___

the blockage of a coronary artery

48

***Older adults frequently___

take multiple medications

49

In preconventional reasoning, children:

act almost purely to avoid punishment and to get what they want

50

A 16 year old female complains of vaginal bleeding and abdominal cramping that began several hours ago. During your assessment interview, you should:

inquire about the possibility of pregnancy in private, if possible

51

The human body should be functioning at its optima level between the ages of:

19 and 25 years

52

Which of the following scenarios does NOT involve the presence of any symptoms?

a) a 44 yr old male with abdominal pain and severe dizziness
b) a 49 yr old female with blurred vision and ringing in the ears
c) a 55 yr old male with a severe headache and 2 days of nausea
d) a 61 yr old female who is unconscious with facial cyanosis

a) a 44 yr old male with abdominal pain and severe dizziness

b) a 49 yr old female with blurred vision and ringing in the ears

c) a 55 yr old male with a severe headache and 2 days of nausea

d) a 61 yr old female who is unconscious with facial cyanosis***

53

Which of the following actions would NOT be performed during the scene size-up?

a) asking a neighbor to secure the patient's dog

b) rapidly assessing a patients respiratory status

c) notifying the dispatcher to send fire personnel

d) noting the position of a crashed motor vehicle

b) rapidly assessing a patient's respiratory status

54

You are assessing a 72 year old man with abdominal pain. The patient is sitting in a chair, he is conscious, alert, and calm. As you are talking to the patient, your partner discreetly directs your attention to a handgun, which is located on a nearby table. You should:

position yourself in between the patient and the gun and ask your partner to request law enforcement assistance

55

Which of the following statements regarding the mechanism of injury is correct?

the MOI may allow you to predict the severity of a patient's injuries

56

During an EMS call, you should take standard precautions:

before exiting the ambulance and before actual patient contact

57

Treatment and transport priorities at the scene of a mass-casualty incident should be determined after:

all the patients have been triaged

58

When approaching a 32 year old male who is complaining of traumatic neck pain, you should:

ensure that the patient can see you approaching him

59

***Which of the following conditions would be LEAST likely to cause an altered level of consciousness?

acute perfusion

60

An elderly patient has fallen and hit her head. Your initial care should focus on:

airway, breathing, and circulation

61

An injured patient is assigned a total sore of 9 on the GCS. He is assigned a score of 2 for eye opening, a score of 3 for verbal response, and a score of 4 for motor response. Which of the following clinical findings is consistent with his GCS score?

opens eyes in response to pain, uses inappropriate words, withdraws from pain

62

To protect a restrained patient and prevent him from using leverage to break free, the EMT should secure___.

one arm above the head

63

The ___ is both the mechanical weight-bearing base of the spinal column and the fused central posterior section of the pelvic girdle.

sacrum

64

An EMT may injure his or her back, even if it is straight, if the...

back is bent forward at the hips

65

The proper technique for using the power grip is to:

lift with your palms up

66

Which of the following statements regarding patient weight distribution is correct?

the majority of a horizontal patient's weight is in the torso

67

To minimize the risk of injuring yourself when lifting or moving a patient, you should:

keep the weight as close to your body as possible

68

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate device to use when immobilizing a patient with a suspected spinal injury?

a long backboard

69

To facilitate a safe and coordinated move, the team leader should:

use preparatory commands to initiate any moves

70

As you and your partner are carrying a stable patient down a flight of stairs in a stair chair, you feel a sudden sharp pain in your lower back. You should:

stop the move and request additional lifting assistance

71

When pulling a patient, you should extend your arms no more than___ in front of your torso.

15-20 inches

72

The amount of medication that is given is known as the...

dose

73

What is the rout of administration for the EpiPen auto-injector?

intramuscular

74

Which of the following is required for an EMT to administer a drug to a patient?

medical direction approval

75

Which of the following patient populations typically require a modified drug dose?

pediatric patients

76

After taking diphenhydramine (Benadryl) for an allergic reaction, a person begins experiencing drowsiness and a dry mouth. These findings are examples of a(n):

side effect

77

Advil, Nuprin, and Motrin are trade names for the generic medication:

ibuprofen

78

While assisting a paramedic in the attempted resuscitation of a 55 yr old male in cardiac arrest, you should expect the paramedic to:

administer drugs via the IV route the achieve the fastest effect

79

A 31 year old female is experiencing an acute asthma attack. She is conscious and alert, but in obvious respiratory distress. After assisting her with her prescribed MDI, you should:

reassess the patient and document her response to the medication

80

A 62 year old male is seen with crushing chest pain, which he describes as being the same kind of pain that he had with a previous heart attack. He has prescribed nitroglycerin but states that he has not taken any. After administering supplemental oxygen if needed and contacting medical control, you should:

assist him with his nitroglycerin unless his systolic blood pressure is less than 100 mm Hg

81

Which of the following clinical signs would necessitate the administration of naloxone?

slow respirations

82

Inadequate circulation of blood throughout the body is called___

shock

83

What are the three components of the perfusion triangle?

hear, blood vessels, blood

84

You suspect your patient is in shock. You note the patient's skin is pale. This is likely due to...

Peripheral vasoconstriction

85

Shock due to severe infection is called....

septic shock

86

***Your patient has a decreased cardiac output and poor myocardial contractility. This will likely lead to___

cardiogenic shock

87

Foods, medication, and insects are common causes of___

anaphylactic shock

88

Your patient is in shock, but the body's defense mechanisms are currently able to maintain adequate circulation. This is called___

compensated shock

89

***To protect vital organs, the body compensates by directing blood flow away from the organs that are more tolerant of low flow, such as...

the skin

90

***Hypovolemic shock caused by severe burns is the result of a loss of:

plasma

91

When assessing a patient with signs and symptoms of shock, it is important to remember that:

blood pressure may be the last measurable factor to change in shock

92

Assessment of the medical patient is usually focused on the...

nature of the illness

93

Most treatments provided in the prehospital setting are intended to___.

address the patient's symptoms

94

Most patients with an infectious disease will have...

a fever

95

Which of the following is bacterium resistant to most antibiotics and causes skin abscesses?

MRSA

96

***Which of the following conditions is NOT categorized as a psychiatric condition?

substance abuse

97

You and your EMT partner arrive at the residence of a 50 year old man who complains of weakness. Your primary assessment reveals that he is critically ill and will require aggressive treatment. The closest hospital is 25 miles away, you should...

manage all threats to airway, breathing, and circulation and consider requesting an ALS unit

98

When assessing a patient with a medical complaint, which of the following would MOST likely reveal the cause of the problem?

primary assessment

99

It is especially important to assess pulse, sensation, and movement in all extremities as well as pupillary reactions in patients with a suspected___ problem/

neurologic

100

The determination of whether a medical patient is a high-priority or low-priority transport is typically made:

after the primary assessment has been completed

101

In which of the following situations would it be MOST appropriate to utilize an air medical transportation service?

A) a 29 year old woman who is 18 weeks pregnant and has light vaginal bleeding, and stable vital signs

B) a 43 year old man experiencing a heart attack, and the closest appropriate hospital is 15 minutes away

C) a 50 year old conscious woman with severe nausea and vomiting, fever, and chills of 3 days' duration

D) a 61 year old man with signs and symptoms of a stroke and a ground transport time of 50 minutes

a 61 year old man with signs and symptoms of a stroke and a ground transport time of 50 minutes

102

***Your patients has a chronic respiratory condition. His stimulus to breathe is triggered by low oxygen levels in the blood. This is known as____

hypoxic drive

103

Which of the following must be assessed in every respiratory patient?

lung sounds

104

Crackles (rales) are caused by___

air passing through fluid

105

In what area of the lungs does respiration occur?

alveoli

106

Which of the following is MOST characteristic of adequate breathing?

A) 22 breaths per min with an irregular pattern of breathing and cyanosis

B) 20 breaths per minute with shallow movement of the chest wall and pallor

C) 24 breaths per minute with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin

D) 30 breaths per minute with supraclavicular retractions and clammy skin

C) 24 breaths per minute with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin

107

Which of the following conditions would be least likely to result in hypoxia?

A) pleural effusion

B) severe anxiety

C) pulmonary edema

D) narcotic overdose

B) severe anxiety

108

***A 59 year old male with a history of emphysema complains of an acute worsening of his dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain following a forceful cough. Your assessment reveals that he has a barrel-shaped chest, unilaterally diminished breath sounds, and tachycardia. What is the MOST likely cause of this patient's condition?

spontaneous pneumothorax

109

Treatment with continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) would MOST likely be contraindicated in which of the following situations?

A) pulmonary edema, history of hypertension, and anxiety

B) difficulty breathing, two-word dyspnea, and tachycardia

C) shortness of breath and a blood pressure of 76/56 mm Hg

D) conscious and alert patient with an oxygen saturation of 85%

C) shortness of breath and a blood pressure f 76/56 mm Hg

110

***A 30 year old male presents with acute shortness of breath, widespread hives, and facial swelling. He denies any past medical history and takes no medications. During your assessment, you hear wheezing over all the lung fields. His blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg and his heart rate is 110 beats/min. In addition to giving him high-flow oxygen, the MOST important treatment for this patient is....

epinephrine

111

You are assisting an asthma patient with his prescribed metered-dose inhaler. After the patient takes a deep breath and depresses the inhaler, you should:

instruct him to hold his breath for as long as he comfortably can

112

The three major parts of the brain are the ...

cerebrum, cerebellum, and brain stem

113

***Interruption of cerebral blood flow may result from all of the following, EXCEPT:

A) a thrombus

B) an embolism

C) cerebral vasodilation

D) an acute arterial rupture

C) cerebral vasodilation

114

***The MOST significant risk factor for a hemorrhagic stroke is:

hypertension

115

***Which of the following MOST accurately describes a simple partial seizure?

a seizure that begins in one extremity

116

Which of the following MOST accurately describes what the patient will experience during the postictal state that follows a seizure?

confusion and fatigue

117

During the primary assessment of a semiconscious 70 year old female, you should...

ensure a patent airway and support ventilation as needed

118

You are caring for a 68 year old man with sudden onset of left sided paralysis and slurred speech. His airway is patent, his respirations are 14 breaths/min with adequate depth, and his oxygen saturation is 98%. Treatment for this patient should include:

recovery position and transport

119

When you are obtaining medical history from the family of a suspected stroke patient, it is MOST important to determine:

when the patient last appeared normal

120

When assessing for arm drift of a patient with a suspected stroke you should...

ask the patient to close his or her eyes during the assessment

121

Your patient opens his eyes, moans, and pulls away from you when you pinch his trapezius muscle. You should assign a Glasgow Coma Scale score of ___

8

122

***For a patient with a GI complaint, it is MOST important for the EMT to...

identify whether the patient requires rapid transport

123

Which of the following helps filter the blood and has no digestive function?

spleen

124

Which of the following is correct about the secondary assessment for a high-priority patient?

you may not have time to complete a secondary assessment

125

Which of the following may help reduce your patient's nausea?

low flow oxygen

126

Pain that may be perceived at a distant point on the surface of the body, such as the back or shoulder, is called:

referred pain

127

***A 30 year old woman with a history of alcoholism presents with severe upper abdominal pain and is omitting large amounts of bright red blood. Her skin is cool, pale, and clammy; her heart rate is 120 beats per minute and weak, and her BP is 70/50 mm Hg. Your MOST immediate action should be to_____

Protect her airway from aspiration

128

***A 47 year old male presents with severe abdominal pain of 3 hours' duration. His abdomen is distended and guarded. Your MOST important consideration for this patient should be to:

assess his BP to determine perfusion adequacy

129

Which of the following statements regarding dialysis is correct?

A) acute hypertension is a common adverse effect of dialysis

B) Hemodialysis is effective but carries a high risk of peritonitis

C) Patients who miss a dialysis treatment often present with weakness

D) The purpose of dialysis is the help the kidneys retain salt and water

A) acute hypertension is a common adverse effect of diaylsis

130

***Peritonitis may result in shock because:

fluid shifts from the bloodstream into body tissues

131

When assessing a patient with abdominal pain, you should:

Palpate the abdomen in a clockwise direction, beginning with the quadrant after the one the patient indicates is painful

132

The main function of the endocrine system is to__

maintain homeostasis

133

**A patient with an altered mental status; high blood glucose levels; and deep, rapid breathing may have a condition known as____

diabetic ketoacidosis

134

A patient with hypoglycemia will often present with which of the following signs/symptoms?

pale, cool, and clammy skin

135

Which of the following statements regarding glucose is correct?

A) most cells will function normally without glucose

B) blood glucose levels decrease in the absence of insulin

C) The brain requires glucose as much as it requires oxygen

D) The brain requires insulin to allow glucose to enter the cells

C) the brain requires glucose as much as it requires oxygen

136

In contrast to type 1 diabetes, type 2 diabetes:

is caused by resistance to insulin at the cellular level

137

The EMT should assess for hypoglycemia in small children with a severe illness or injury because:

children cannot store excess glucose as effectively as adults

138

Classic signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia include:

cool, clammy skin, weakness, tachycardia, and rapid respirations

139

A 75 year old male with type 1 diabetes presents with chest pain and a general feeling of weakness. He tells you that he took his insulin today and ate a regular meal approximately 2 hours ago. You should treat this patient as though he is experiencing___

a heart attack

140

A man finds his 59 year old wife unconscious on the couch. He states that she takes medications for type 2 diabetes. He further tells you that his wife has been ill recently and has not eaten for the past 24 hours. Your assessment reveals that the patient is unresponsive. You should___

open and maintain her airway and assess breathing

141

A 66 year old woman experienced a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. She has a history of type 2 diabetes and DVT. On a basis of her medical history, which of the following should the EMT suspect?

pulmonary embolism

142

When an allergic reaction proceeds to life-threatening anaphylaxis, it will usually do so.....

quickly and within 30 minutes

143

When a foreign substance invades the body, the body will____

protect itself, go on alert, and attempt to inactivate the foreign substance

144

At the site of the injury, signs, and symptoms of an animal or insect bite or sting may include pain, localized heat, and a wheal, which appears as ___

a raised, well-defined area of the skin

145

Care for a victim of an immunologic emergency who is severely hypotensive should include which of the following?

Apply high-flow oxygen therapy, place the patient in a shock position, and help maintain the patient's body temperature

146

Epinephrine stimulates the ___response, increasing blood pressure and relieving bronchospasm.

sympathetic

147

After administering 0.3 mg of epinephrine via auto-injector to a 22 year old woman with an allergic reaction, you note improvement in her breathing and dissipation of her hives. However, she is still anxious and tachycardic. You should....

monitor her closely but recall that anxiety and tachycardia are side effects of epinephrine

148

Urticaria is the medical term for...

hives

149

A 37 year old male is having a severe allergic reaction to penicillin. He does not have an epinephrine auto-injector and your protocols do not allow you to carry epinephrine on the ambulance. How should you proceed with the treatment of this patient?

Administer oxygen, transport at once, and request a paramedic intercept

150

Which of the following sounds indicates swelling of the upper airway?

stridor

151

A 19 year old female was stung multiple times on the legs by fire ants. She states that she is allergic to fire ants, but does not carry her own epinephrine. The patient is conscious and alert and complains of pain to the area of the bites. Her blood pressure is 122/70 mm Hg, her pule is 100 bpm and strong, and her respirations are 18 breaths, min and unlabored. You should.....

Administer oxygen and transport her to the hospital

152

How do poisons typically act to harm the body?

by changing the normal metabolism of cells or by destroying them

153

If the victim of a toxicological emergency vomits, an EMT should____

use appropriate PPE and examine the vomitus for pill fragments or other clues for patient care

154

Of the four avenues of poisoning, generally ____ is the most worrisome in terms of treatment of the EMS provider.

injection

155

Victims of inhaled poisoning will require which of the following?

transport to an emergency department for evaluation

156

The recommended treatment for absorbed or contact poisons includes....

safely removing or diluting the poisonous substance

157

Most poisonings occur via the ___route.

ingestion

158

Heroin is an example of an___

opiod

159

Hypotension, hypoventilation, and pin point pupils would be expected following an overdose of ___

oxycodone (Percocet)

160

Which of the following questions would be LEAST pertinent during the initial questioning of a patient who ingested a substance?

Why was the substance ingested?

161

Activated charcoal is given to patients who have ingested certain substances because it:

binds to the substance and prevents absorption

162

What is the most common misconception surrounding mental illness?

Feeling bad or depressed means the must be sick

163

Why might EMTs encounter a larger proportion of violent patients than the population at large?

EMTs respond to patients who, by definition, are having an emergency

164

Everyone exhibits some signs and symptoms of mental illness at some point in life___

but that does not mean a person is mentally ill

165

A behavioral crisis interferes with which of the following?

activities of daily living

behavior that is acceptable to the community

dressing, eating, or bathing

166

Which of the following is an example of a psychiatric emergency?

A) a person going on a week-long bender after losing a job

B) a person violently attacking family members

C) a person who is depressed and no longer caring for himself

D) a person who is experiencing a panic attack

a person violently attacking family members

167

When a psychiatric emergency arises, a patient is most likely to exhibit which of the following behaviors?

A) disruptions to activities of daily living

B) any behaviors unacceptable to the patient, family, or community

C) any behaviors that are a violent threat to the patient, EMTS, or others

D) visual or auditory hallucinations

any behaviors that are a violent threat to the patient, EMTs, or others

168

The two basic categories of diagnosis that a physician will use for behavioral crises or psychiatric emergencies are ___

A) organic brain syndrome and altered mental status

B) functional and nonfunctional

C) physical and psychological

D) all of the above are correct

physical and psychological

169

Which of the following is considered an organic brain syndrome?

Alzheimer dementia

170

Which of the following is a good guideline for physical examination of any patient?

avoid touching without permission

171

A general impression of the patient is formed by an EMT:

at a distance when the patient is first seen

172

The ___ connects each ovary with the uterus.

fallopian tubes

173

Some women experience___during ovulation.

slight cramping

174

While the ages can vary, women typically experience menstruation from approximately ages ____to ____.

11-50

175

Which of the following infections, when left untreated, may lead to infection of the blood and brain?

A) PID

B) chlamydia

C) bacterial vaginosis

D) gonorrhea

D) gonorrhea

176

The EMT should ensure that vaginal bleeding is___

taken seriously nd the patient is transported for gynecologic evaulation

177

Causes of vaginal bleeding include what?

ectopic pregnancy, vaginal trauma, spontaneous abortion

178

***In cases of sexual assault, it is important to ensure that you do which of the following?

call for a female EMT or ALS care provider

immediately write down observations of the scene before assessing pt

discuss with law enforcement any suspicions that you may have about the perpetrator

179

A 26 year old female presents with heavy vaginal bleeding. She is conscious, but restless. Her BP is 84/54 mm Hg, her pulse is 120 bpm and weak, and her respirations are 22 breaths per min with adequate depth. She tells you that she inserted a tampon about 2 hours ago. You should___

administer high-flow oxygen, place a sterile pad over her vagina, keep her warm, elevate her lower extremities, and transport without delay

180

When caring for a female patient who has been sexually assaulted, you should:

place any bloodstained clothing or other articles in separate paper bags

181

Law enforcement personnel request your assistance to assess a 31 year old female who was sexually assaulted. When you arrive at the scene, you find the patient sitting on a curb outside her apartment. She is conscious, alert, and crying. When you ask her what happened, she tells you that she does not want to be treated or transported to the hospital. She further tells you that all she wants to do is clean up. You should___

provide emotional support and visually assess her for obvious trauma

182

The CNS is composed of the :

brain and spinal cord

183

What part of the nervous system controls the body's voluntary activities?

Somatic

184

The five sections of the spinal column, in descending order, are the:

cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal

185

Common signs and symptoms of a serious head injury include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A) a rapid, thread pulse

B) a widening pulse pressure

C) CSF leakage from the ears

D) decelerate posturing

a rapid, thready pulse

186

***When assessing a patient with a head injury, you note the presence of thin, bloody fluid draining from his right ear. This indicates:

a rupture of the tympanic membrane following diffuse impact to the head

187

***Which of the following breathing patterns is MOST indicative of increased intracranial pressure?

A) increased rate with normal inspiratory time and a prolonged expiratory time

B) irregular rate, pattern, and volume of breathing with intermittent periods of apnea

C) increased rate and depth with the distinct odor of acetone of the patient's breath

D) slow, shallow, occasional gasps that progress to prolonged periods of apnea

B) irregular rate, pattern, and volume of breathing with intermittent periods of apnea

188

A man jumped from the roof of his house and landed on his feet. He complains of pain to his heels, knees, and lower back. This mechanism of injury is an example of:

axial loading

189

Once a cervical collar has been applied to a patient with a possible spinal injury, it should not be removed unless:

it causes a problem managing the airway

190

The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is used to assess:

eye opening, verbal response, and motor response

191

When immobilizing a trauma patient's spine, the EMT manually stabilizing the head should not let go until:

the patient is completely secured to the backboard

192

When a warm hand is immersed in water that is 70 degrees F, heat is transferred from the hand to the water through a process called___

conduction

193

The body's natural cooling mechanism, in which sweat is converted to a gas, is called:

evaporation

194

Hypothermia occurs when the core body temperature falls below:

95 degrees F (35 degrees C)

195

A 30 year of male was rescued after being lost in the woods for approximately 18 hours. The outside temperature is 30 degrees F (-1 C). He is immediately placed in the warmed ambulance where you perform a primary assessment. He is unresponsive, pale, and apneic. You should:

protect the affected part from further injury

196

Common signs and symptoms of heat exhaustion include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A) nausea

B) headache

C) tachycardia

D) hot, dry skin

D) hot, dry skin

197

You receive a call to a residence for a sick patient. Upon your arrival, you find the patient, a 53 year old diabetic male, lying down on his front porch. His wife tells you that he had been mowing the lawn in the heat for the past 3 hours. The patient is confused and has hot, moist skin. His pulse is weak and thread, and his BP is 90/50 mm Hg. You should:

load him into the ambulance and begin rapid cooling interventions

198

You respond to a local lake where a diver complains of difficulty breathing that occurred immediately after rapidly ascending from a depth of approximately 30 feet. On assessment, you note that he has cyanosis around his lips and has pink froth coming from his nose and mouth. You should:

suction his mouth and nose, apply high-flow oxygen, monitor the patient's breath sounds for a pneumothorax, and contact medical control regarding transport to a recompression facility

199

The venom of a black widow spider is toxic to the:

nervous system

200

You and your partner respond to a park where several people were reportedly struck by lightning. When you arrive, you find three patients. The first patient is lying supine on the ground; he is unresponsive and does not appear to be breathing. The second patient is ambulatory, appears confused, and is holding his arm against his chest. The third patient is sitting on the ground holding the sides of his head. After calling for backup, you should:

assess the unresponsive patient's pulse, begin CPR starting with chest compressions if he is pulseless, and attach the AED as soon as possible

201

Which of the following destinations is most appropriate for a 41 year old male patient who was involved in a rollover motor vehicle collision and is unconscious and unresponsive, assuming that travel times to each is equal?

a Level 1 or Level 2 trauma center

202

The index of suspicion is MOST accurately defined as:

your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying injuries

203

Which of the following statements regarding gunshot wounds is correct?

A) high velocity bullets will cause less severe internal injuries

B) the size of a bullet has the greatest impact on the injury produced

C) low-velocity bullets will cause the greatest amount of trauma

D) the speed of a bullet has the greatest impact on the injury produced

D) the speed of a bullet has the greatest impact on the injury produced

204

Which types of motor vehicle collisions present the greatest potential for multiple impacts?

rotational and rollover

205

While en route to a major motor vehicle crash, an on-scene police officer advises you that a 6 year old male who was riding in the front seat is involved. He further states that the child was only wearing a lap belt and that the air bag deployed. On the basis of this information, you should be MOST suspicious that the child has experienced:

A) open abdominal trauma

B) neck and facial injuries

C)blunt trauma to the head

D) lower extremity fractures

B) neck and facial injuries

206

15 year old female was struck by a small car while riding her bicycle. She was wearing a helmet and was thrown to the ground, striking her head. In addition to managing problems associated with airway, breathing, and circulation, it is MOST important for you to:

stabilize her entire spine

other options: obtain baseline vital signs, inspect the helmet for cracks, leave the bicycle helmet on

207

A 12 year old male jumped approximately 12 feet from a tree and landed on his feet. He complains of pain to his lower back. What injury mechanism is MOST likely responsible for his back pain?

A) lateral impact to the spine

B) energy transmission to the spine

C) direct trauma to the spinal column

D) secondary fall after the initial impact

B) energy transmission to the spine

208

When assessing an elderly patient who fell, it is important to remember that:

osteoporosis can cause a fracture as a result of a fall from a standing position

209

Which of the following interventions is the MOST critical to the outcome of a patient with multisystem trauma?

A) IV fluid administration

B) early administration of oxygen

C) elevation of the lower extremities

D) rapid transport to a trauma center

D) rapid transport to a trauma center

210

According to the Association of Air Medical Services, you should consider air medical transport of a trauma patient if:

Traffic conditions hamper the ability to get the patient to a trauma center by ground within the ideal time frame for the best clinical outcome

211

Which section of the heart receives deoxygenated blood?

right

212

Circulation of blood within an organ or tissue in adequate amounts to meet the cell's oxygen, nutritional, and waste-removal needs is termed__

perfusion

213

Hypovolemic shock occurs when:

the body cannot compensate for rapid blood loss

214

What mechanism(s) does the body use to control bleeding?

clotting, coagulation, vasoconstriction

215

The severity of bleeding should be based on all of the following findings, EXCCEPT:

A) systolic BP

B) poor general appearance

C) the mechanism of injury

D) clinical signs and symptoms

systolic blood pressure (A)

216

***Following blunt trauma to the abdomen, a 21 year old female complains of diffuse abdominal pain and pain to the left shoulder. Your assessment reveals that her abdomen is distended and tender to palpation. On the basis of these findings, you should be MOST suspicious of injury to the:

spleen

217

A young male was shot in the abdomen by an unknown type of gun. He is semiconscious, has shallow breathing, and is bleeding externally from the wound. As you control the external bleeding, your partner should:

assist the patient's ventilations

218

If direct pressure fails to immediately stop severe bleeding from an extremity, you should apply:

a tourniquet proximal to the injruy

219

a 43 year old man is experiencing a severe nosebleed. His BP is 190/110 mm Hg and his heart rate is 90 beats per minute and bounding. Preferred treatment for this patient includes:

pinching the patient's nostrils and having him lean forward

220

Whether you are using a commercial device or a stick and triangular bandage as a tourniquet, it is important to remember that:

you should try to control the bleeding by applying a pressure to a proximal arterial pressure point first

221

The EMT is legally obligated to protect a patient's privacy according to___

HIPAA

222

National guidelines for EMS care are intended to___

provide more consistent delivery of EMS care across the United States

223

Which of the following interventions is used by all levels of EMS providers?

automated external defibrillator

Not: multilumen airways, needle compression, automatic transport ventilators

224

***Online medical control requires__

phone or radio contact with the medical provider

225

Prehospital patient care decisions should be based on __

EMS research

226

American Heart Association protocols are based on___

evidence based research

227

The ability to handle multiple tasks based on their priority is called____

time management

228

You are encouraging a patient to go to the hospital by ambulance. You know that a transport will keep you on duty several hours after your regular quitting time. This is an example of ___

patient advocacy

229

Which of the following descriptions MOST accurately portrays emergency medical services (EMS)?

A) a vast network of advanced providers who provide definitive emergency care in the prehospital setting

B) a team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured

C) A system composed exclusively of emergency medical responders and emergency medical technicians who are responsible for providing care to sick and injured patients

D) a team of paramedics and emergency and emergency physicians who are responsible for providing emergency care to critically injured patients

B)

230

Which of the following statements regarding the NREMT is correct?

A) the NREMT is a governmental agency that certifies EMTs

B)EMS training standards are regulated by the NREMT

C) the NREMT is the exclusive certifying body for EMTs

D) the NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing

D)

231

Which of the following areas of the body has the thinnest skin?

ears

232

***Which of the following processes occurs during the inflammation phase of the healing process?

The immune system releases histamines, which cause vasodilation and increased capillary permeability, resulting in local redness and swelling

233

Which of the following statements regarding crush syndrome is correct?

Compromised arterial blood flow leads to crush syndrome and can occur when an area of the body is trapped for longer than 4 hours

234

Which of the following open soft-tissue injuries is limited to the superficial layer of the skin and results in the least amount of blood loss?

abrasion

235

During your assessment of a patient who was shot in the abdomen, you notice a large entrance wound with multiple small puncture wounds surrounding it. This wound pattern is MOST consistent with a:

shotgun

236

A 39 year old male was struck in the head by a baseball during a game. He is confused and has slurred speech. He has a large hematoma in the center of his forehead and cannot remember the events preceding the injury. After manually stabilizing his head and assessing his airway, you should:

Administer high flow oxygen

237

As you approach a young male who was involved in an industrial accident, you note that his eyes are closed and that he is not moving. You can see several large contusions to his arms, a laceration to his forehead with minimal bleeding, and a closed deformity to his right leg. You should:

Open his airway and assess his breathing status

238

A 33 year old male sustained an abdominal evisceration to the LLQ of his abdomen after he was cut with a large knife. After appropriately managing his ABCs and assessing him for other life-threatening injuries, how you should care for his wound?

cover it with moist, sterile gauze and secure with an occlusive dressing

239

In which of the following patients should you remove an impaled object?

A) a semiconscious patient with an ice pack impaled in the chest

B) an apneic patient with a shard of glass impaled in the abdomen

C) a pulseless and apneic patient with a knife impaled in the back

D) a conscious and alert patient with a fishhook impaled in the eye

C

240

A burn that is characterized by redness and pain is classified as a:

superficial burn

241

When performing a full body scan, you should assess for ____

DCAP-BTLS

242

If your patient swallows blood following facial trauma, there is an increased risk of ___

vomiting

243

The upper jawbones are called the ___

maxillae

244

***The MOST significant complication associated with facial injuries is ___

cervical spine injury

245

When caring for a patient with an open facial injury, the EMTs immediate priority should be to:

wear gloves and facial protection

246

Bleeding from soft-tissue injuries to the face is MOST effectively controlled with:

direct pressure using dry, sterile dressings

247

A factory worker was splashed in the eyes with a strong acid chemical. He complains of intense pain and blurred vision. Your ambulance does not carry bottles of sterile saline or water. You should:

irrigate both eyes continuously for 20 minutes with plain water

248

A 4 year old female has a peanut lodged in the external auditory canal of her right ear. You should:

transport her to the emergency department

249

A 52 year old unrestrained female struck the steering wheel with her face when her truck collided with another vehicle. She has obvious swelling to her face and several dislodged teeth. A visual exam of her mouth reveals minimal bleeding. She is conscious and alert with a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, a pulse of 110 beats per min and respirations of 22 breaths per minute with adequate tidal volume. You should:

fully immobilize her spine, attempt to locate the dislodged the dislodged teeth, suction as needed, and transport

250

A 6 year old female was riding he bicycle and struck a clothesline with her throat. She is breathing, but with obvious difficulty. Your assessment reveals a crackling sensation in the soft tissues of her neck and facial cyanosis. In addition to the appropriate airway management, the intervention that will MOST likely improve her chance of survival is:

rapidly transporting her to the hospital

251

Children are often "belly breathers" because___

their intercostal muscles are not developed

252

Closed chest injuries are typically caused by___

blunt trauma

253

Which of the following is most likely to cause immediate death?

A) myocardial contusion

B) pulmonary contusion

C) aortic dissection

D) aortic rupture

D) aortic rupture

254

Immediately life-threatening chest injures must be found and managed during the___

primary assessment

255

If a patient with a chest injury is only able to inhale small amounts of air per breath, he or she:

must increase his or her respiratory rate to maintain adequate minute volume

256

In order to avoid exacerbating a patient's injury, it is especially important to use extreme caution when providing positive-pressure ventilation to patients with a:

pneumothorax

257

A simple pneumothorax:

is commonly caused by blunt chest trauma

258

****You respond to a residence for a 40 year old female who was assaulted by her husband; the scene has been secured by law enforcement. Upon your arrival, you find the patient lying supine of the floor in the kitchen. She is semiconscious with severely labored breathing. Further assessment reveals a large bruise to the left anterior chest, JVD, and unilaterally absent breath sounds. As your partner is supporting her ventilation you should:

Immediately request ALS support

259

The thoracic cavity is separated from the abdominal cavity by the:

diaphragm

260

Which of the following statements regarding normal gas exchange in the lungs is correct?

oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse across the alveolar walls and capillaries

261

Which of the following structures is NOT found in the upper airway?

A) larynx

B) pharynx

C)bronchus

D) oropharynx

C) bronchus

262

The physical act of moving air into and out of the lungs is called:

ventilation

263

Which of the following statements regarding breathing adequacy is correct?

A) patients with a grossly irregular breathing pattern usually do not require assisted ventilation

B) the single most reliable sign of breathing adequacy in the adult is his or her respiratory rate

C) patients breathing shallowly may require assisted ventilation despite a normal respiratory rate

D) a patient with slow respirations and adequate depth will experience an increase in minute volume

C)

264

Which of the following patients is breathing adequately?

A) A conscious male with respirations of 19 breaths/min and pink skin

B) a conscious female with facial cyanosis and rapid, shallow respirations

C) a conscious male with respirations of 18 breaths per minute and reduced tidal volume

D) an unconscious 52 year old female with snoring respirations and cool, pale skin

A) a conscious male with respirations of 19 breaths per min and pink skin

265

Irregular respirations characterized by an increasing rate and depth of breathing followed by periods of apnea are called:

Cheyne-Stokes respirations

266

In which of the following patients would the head tilt chin lift maneuver be the MOST appropriate method of opening the airway?

A) a 24 year old male who is found unconscious at the base of a tree

B) a 37 year old female who is found unconscious in her bed

C) a 45 year old male who is semiconscious after falling 20 feet

D) a 50 year old male who is unconscious following head trauma

A 37 year old female who is found unconscious in her bed

267

A 19 year old is found unconscious by her roommate. Your primary assessment reveals that her breathing is inadequate. As you insert an oropharyngeal airway, she begins to gag violently. You should:

remove the airway and be prepared to suction her oropharynx

268

The nasopharyngeal airway is MOST beneficial because it:

can maintain a patent airway in a semiconscious patient with a gag reflex

269

When testing a mechanical suctioning unit, you should turn on the device, clamp the tubing, and ensure that it generates a vacuum pressure of more than:

300 mm Hg

270

In pediatric patients, the liver and spleen are___

larger in proportion to the abdomen

271

Abdominal pain, vomiting, and fever are most likely due to___

infection

272

When a patient stiffens the muscles of the abdomen, it is known as___

guarding

273

Which of the following is true regarding injury to the kidneys?

A) the kidneys are not well protected

B) only minimal force is needed to damage the kidneys

C) kidney injuries are rarely caused by blunt trauma

D) Injury to the kidneys usually indicates injury to other organs

Injury to the kidneys usually indicates injury to other organs (D)

274

Because the depth of an open abdominal wound is often difficult to determine:

prompt transport to the hospital is essential

275

You are transporting a 42 year old male who experienced blunt abdominal trauma. He is receiving oxygen at 12 L/min via a nonrebreathing mask and full spinal precautions have been applied. During your reassessment, you note his level of consciousness has decreased and his respirations have become shallow. You should:

Insert an airway adjunct if he will tolerate it and begin assisting his ventilations with a BVM

276

Which of the following statements regarding abdominal eviscerations is correct?

The protruding organs should be kept warm and moist

277

Your presence is requested by law enforcement to assess a 33 year old female who was sexually assaulted. The patient is conscious and obviously upset. As you are talking to her, you note an impressive amount of blood on her clothes in the groin area. Her BP is 98/58 mm Hg, her pulse is 130 bpm, and her respirations is 24 breaths per minute. You should:

Control any external bleeding, administer oxygen, and transport at once

278

You are transporting a patient with blunt abdominal trauma. The patient is unstable and is experiencing obvious signs and symptoms of shock. Your estimated time of arrival at the hospital is less than 10 minutes. After treating the patient appropriately, you should:

closely monitor him and reassess him frequently

279

All of the following are hollow abdominal organs, EXCEPT the:

A) spleen

B) bladder

C) ureters

D) stomach

spleen

280

Deoxygenated blood from the body returns to the:

right atrium

281

Angina pectoris occurs when:

myocardial oxygen demand exceeds supply

282

The electrical impulse generated by the heart originates in the:

SI node

283

Risk factors for AMI that cannot be controlled include:

family history

284

***A 49 year old male presents with an acute onset of crushing chest pain and diaphoresis. You should:

assess the adequacy of his respirations

285

A patient in cardiac arrest is wearing an external defibrillator vest, which is interfering with effective chest compressions. The EMT should:

remove the battery from the monitor and then remove the vest

286

A dissecting aortic aneurysm occurs when:

the inner layers of the aorta become separated

287

A 66 year old female with a history of hypertension and diabetes presents with substernal chest pressure of 2 hours of duration. Her BP is 140/90 mm Hg, her pulse is 100 bpm and irregular, her respirations are 22 breaths per minute, and her oxygen saturation is 92%.The patient does not have prescribed nitroglycerin, but her husband does. You should:

administer oxygen, give her 324 mg of aspirin, and assess her further

288

A patient tells you that he has a LVAD. Which of the following conditions should you suspect that he has experienced?

acute myocardial infarction

289

You and your partner arrive at the scene of a middle-aged man who collapsed about 5 minutes ago. He is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. Bystanders are present, but have not provided any care. You should:

begin high quality CPR and apply the AED as soon as possible

290

The musculoskeletal system refers to the:

bones and voluntary muscles of the body

291

Skeletal muscle is attached to the bone by tough, ropelike, fibrous structures called:

tendons

292

Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would MOST likely result in deformity?

A) severe strain

B) moderate sprain

C) hairline fracture

D) displaced fracture

D) displaced fracture

293

An open fracture is MOST accurately defined as a fracture in which:

The overlying skin is no longer intact

294

Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would pose the greatest threat to a patient's life?

A) an amputated extremity

B) bilateral femur fractures

C) nondisplaced long bone fractures

D) pelvic fracture with hypotension

D) pelvic fracture with hypotension

295

A 22 year old female was ejected from her care after striking a tree head-on. As you approach her, you note obvious closed deformities to both of her femurs. She is not moving and does not appear to be conscious. You should:

stabilize her head and perform a primary assessment

296

A 54 year old male accidentally shot himself in the leg while cleaning his gun. Your assessment reveals a small entrance wound to the medial aspect of his right leg. The exit wound is on the opposite side of the leg and is actively bleeding. The patient complains of numbness and tingling in his right foot. You should:

Control the bleeding and cover the wound with a sterile dressing

297

In which of the following situations should the EMT splint an injured limb in the position of deformity?

A) when distal circulation and neurological functions are absent

B) if transport time to the hospital is greater than 20-30 minutes

C) if resistance is encountered or the patient experiences severe pain

D) if a traction splint will be used to immobilize the injured extremity

C) if resistance is encountered or the patient experiences severe pain

298

During your assessment of a 29 year old female with significant deformity to her left elbow, you are unable to palpate a radial pulse. Your transport time to the hospital is approximately 40 minutes. You should:

splint the elbow in the position of deformity and transport immediately

299

A 17 year old female dislocated her patella while playing soccer. Her knee is flexed and she complains of severe pain. You should:

Keep her knee flexed and secure it with padded board splints

300

From what internal female organ is the fetus expelled during delivery?

uterus

301

The amniotic fluid serves to:

insulate and protect the fetus

302

A 26 year old female who is 34 weeks pregnant is experiencing a seizure. Her husband tells you that her BP has been high and that she had been complaining of a headache for the past few days. You should:

Place her on her side, administer high-flow oxygen, and transport

303

A history of pelvic inflammatory disease or tubal ligations increases a woman's risk for:

An ectopic pregnancy

304

The presence of meconium in the amniotic fluid indicates:

that the baby's airway may be obstructed

305

When preparing a pregnant patient for delivery, you should positon her:

on a firm surface with her hips elevated 2-4 inches

306

During your visual inspection of a 25 year old woman in labor, you see the baby's head crowning at the vaginal opening. What should you do?

Apply gentle pressure to the baby's head as it delivers

307

Following delivery of a full-term baby, you have properly cared for the baby and have clamped and cut the umbilical cord. During transport, you note that the mother is experiencing moderate vaginal bleeding. You should:

firmly massage the uterine fundus with a circular motion

308

If a baby is born at 7:52, the second Apgar score should be calculated at:

7:57

309

Your 22 year old patient is in active labor. Upon visual inspection, you note that the infant's leg is protruding from the vagina. Appropriate management of this situation includes:

Placing the mother supine with her head down and pelvis elevated

310

The first month of life after birth is referred to as the:

neonatal period

311

Unless he or she is critically ill or injured, you should generally begin your assessment of a toddler:

at the feet

312

Pale skin in a child indicates that the:

blood vessels near the skin are constricted

313

The purpose of the pediatric assessment triangle (PAT) is to:

allow you to rapidly and visually form a general impression of the child

314

You are dispatched to a residence for a child with respiratory distress. The patient, an 18 month old female, is tachypneic, has sternal retraction, and is clinging to her mother. Her skin is pink and dry, and her heart rate is 120 bpm. The MOST appropriate treatment for this child includes:

administering blow-by oxygen and transporting the child with her mother

315

A viral infection that may cause obstruction of the upper airway in a child is called:

croup

316

Infection should be considered a possible cause of an airway obstruction in an infant or child, especially is he or she presents with:

drooling or congestion

317

When questioning the parent of a child who ingested a poisonous substance, which of the following questions would be of LEAST pertinence initially?

Why did your child ingest the poison?

318

A 2 year old female has experienced a seizure. When you arrive at the scene, the child is conscious, crying and clinging to her mother. Her skin is hot and moist. The mother tells you that the seizure lasted approximately 5 minutes. She further tells you that her daughter has no history of seizures, but has had a recent ear infection. You should:

Allow the mother to drive her daughter to the hospital

319

When caring for a female child who has possible been sexually abused, you should:

Have a female EMT remain with her if possible

320

To minimize distractions and confusion when assessing an older patient, you should:

have only one EMT speak to the patient at a time

321

Sedentary behavior while healing from a hip fracture would MOST likely predispose the older patient to:

pneumonia

322

The leading cause of death in the geriatric patient is:

heart disease

323

During the natural process of aging, the number of functional cilia in the respiratory system decreases, resulting in:

a decreased ability to cough

324

In contrast to younger patients, older patients are more prone to a decrease in BP upon standing because:

the body is less able to adapt the BP to rapid postural changes

325

Clouding of the lenses of the eyes is called:

cataracts

326

***An abdominal aortic aneurysm:

is often the result of hypertension and atherosclerosis

327

The stooped posture of some older people, which gives them a humpback appearance, is called:

kyphosis

328

Common causes of depression in the elderly include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A) chronic medical conditions

B) prescription medication use

C) an acute onset of dementia

D) alcohol abuse and dependence

C) an acute onset of dementia

329

Because of the complexity of the older patient and the vagueness of his or her complaint, you should:

attempt to differentiate between chronic and acute problems

330

Which of the following statements regarding patients with intellectual disabilities is correct?

A) speaking with the patient's family is the least effective way to determine how much the patient understands

B) patients with intellectual disabilities are susceptible to the same disease processes as other patients

C) an intellectual disability differs from mental retardation in that it is the result of a congenital abnormality

D) most patients with intellectual disabilities have normal cognitive function, but abnormal physical features

B) patients with intellectual disabilities are susceptible to the same disease processes as other patients

331

When caring for a patient who is visually impaired, it is important to:

tell her or her what is happening, identify noises, and describe the situation and surroundings

332

A 70 year old male complains of shortness of breath. During your assessment, you note that he has bilateral hearing aids. When you ask him questions related to his chief complaint, he does not answer you. You can hear a whistling sound coming from his hearing aids. You should:

try repositioning the hearing aid or remove it and turn down the volume

333

Which of the following conditions would MOST likely be encountered in a patient with cerebral palsy?

seizure disorders

334

Spina bifida is defined as:

a birth defect caused by incomplete closure of the spinal column

335

You are assessing a 440 lb man who complains of shortness of breath and lower back pain. The patient is conscious and alert, his BP is 148/98 mm Hg, and his heart rate is 120 bpm. Your MOST immediate action should be to:

avoid placing him in a supine position if possible and administer oxygen

336

Because a tracheostomy tube bypasses the nose and mouth:

secretions can build up in and around the tube

337

A 13 year old child is on a home ventilator. The parents called because the mechanical ventilator is malfunctioning and the child has increasing respiratory distress. You should:

disconnect the ventilator and apply a tracheostomy collar

338

***Under what circumstances is a left ventricular assist device used?

as a bridge to heart transplantation while a donor heart is being located

339

Which of the following statements regarding interaction with the caregiver of a child or adult with special health care needs is correct?

Communication with the patient's caregiver or family members is important because they are the most familiar with the patient's condition

340

A type___ ambulance features a conventional, truck cab-chassis with a modular ambulance body that can be transferred to a new chassis as needed.

I

341

Equipment and supplies that are carried on an ambulance should be stored:

according to the urgency and frequency of their use

342

The LEAST practical place to store a portable oxygen cylinder is:

in the driver's compartment

343

For every emergency request, the dispatcher should routinely gather and record all of the following information, EXCEPT the:

patients medical history

the information that would be gathered includes:

The nature of the call, caller's phone number, and location of the patients

344

Immediately upon arriving at the scene of an emergency call involving a traumatic injury, you should notify the dispatcher of your arrival and then:

observe the scene for safety hazards

345

When arriving at the scene of an overturned tractor-trailer rig, you note that a green cloud is being emitted from the crashed vehicle. The driver is still in the truck: he is conscious but bleeding profusely from the head. After notifying the hazardous materials team, you should:

position the ambulance upwind

346

Maintaining a cushion of safety when operating an ambulance means:

Keeping a safe distance between your ambulance and the vehicles in front of you and remaining aware of vehicles potentially hiding in your mirrors' blind spots

347

The use of lights and siren on an ambulance:

signifies a request for other drivers to yield the right of way

348

In which of the following situations would the EMTs MOST likely utilize a police escort?

The EMTs are unfamiliar with the location, but the police officer knows the area

349

When approaching a helicopter, whether the rotor blades are moving or not, you should:

never duck under the body or the tail boom because the pilot cannot see you in these areas

350

At a scene with downed electrical lines, the EMT should____

remain outside the danger (hot) zone

351

Returning the emergency unit to service is part of the ____

termination phase

352

The EMTs responsibility during search-and-rescue operations is to___

wait at the staging area until the patients is located

353

Upon arrival at a trench rescue operation, you should___

park at least 500 feet from the incident

354

While staged at the scene of a structure fire, the EMT should___

remain with the ambulance

355

Extrication is defined as:

removal from a dangerous situation or position

356

Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you can see three patients, one who is entrapped in his car and two who have ejected from their vehicle. You should___

immediately request additional resources

357

The rescue team is in the process of extricating a 40 year old male from his truck. The patient's wife, who was uninjured in the crash, is calmly observing the extrication and asks you if her husband will be all right. You should___

ensure that she is in a safe area, away from the scene

358

You are attempting to gain access to a patient who was injured when his truck struck another vehicle from behind. The patient is conscious and alert, but is screaming in pain. You try to open the door, but it is locked. You should:

ask the patient if he can unlock the door

359

A 19 year old female has just been extricated from her severely damaged car. She is on a long backboard and has been moved to a place of safety. As your partner maintains manual stabilization of her head, you perform a rapid assessment. The patient is unresponsive, has slow and shallow respirations, and has bilaterally closed femur deformities. You should:

direct your partner to begin ventilator assistance


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